Dumps -

0 votes, 0 avg

Created by

Md Hedaet Shake

CCNA 200-301

1 / 10

1. What command should you use to quickly view the HSRP state of the switch for all HSRP groups
of which the switch is a member?

1. switch# show standby

2. switch# show standby brief

3. switch# show hsrp

4. switch# show ip interface brief

2 / 10

2. What is the valid host address range for the subnet 172.25.4.0 /23?

1. 172.25.4.21 to 172.25.5.56

2. 172.25.4.35 to 172.25.5.64

3. 172.25.4.1 to 172.25.5.254

4. 172.25.4.10 to 172.25.5.210

3 / 10

3. Which device can break Collision domain?

1. Router

2. Hub

3. Firewall

4. Switch

4 / 10

4. Which type of Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is used to work as a trunk between
two switches?

1. RJ-45 crossover

2. RJ-41 crossover

3. RJ-45 straight-through

4. RJ-11 straight-through

5 / 10

5. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is used to view the number of
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received?

1. show ip eigrp packets

2. show ip eigrp topology

3. show ip route

4. show eigrp neighbors

5. show ip eigrp interfaces

6. show ip eigrp traffic

6 / 10

6. Which statement is NOT true regarding Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?

1. ICMP provides reliable transmission of data in an Internet Protocol (IP) environment.

2. ICMP can identify network problems.

3. ICMP is documented in RFC 792.

4. An ICMP echo-request message is generated by the ping command.

7 / 10

7. What command was used to generate the output shown below?

1. show ip interface

2. show ip interface brief

3. show interface

4. show interface status

8 / 10

8. Which of the following are port roles in the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)? (Choose
three.)

1. Routing

2. Backup

3. Listening

4. Alternate

5. Blocking

6. Discarding

7. Designated

9 / 10

9. What two devices can be connected to a router WAN serial interface that can provide clocking?
(Choose two.)

1. CSU/DSU

2. hub

3. modem

4. switch

10 / 10

10. Which of the following cables would be used to connect a router to a switch?

1. straight-through

2. crossover

3. rollover

Your score is

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

0 votes, 0 avg

Created by

Md Hedaet Shake

CCNP 350-401 ENCOR

1 / 1

1. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is used to view the number of
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received?

1. show eigrp neighbors

2. show ip eigrp packets

3. show ip route

4. show ip eigrp interfaces

5. show ip eigrp traffic

6. show ip eigrp topology

Your score is

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

0 votes, 0 avg

Created by

Md Hedaet Shake

CCNP 300-410 ENARSI

1 / 1

1. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is used to view the number of
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received?

1. show ip eigrp packets

2. show eigrp neighbors

3. show ip route

4. show ip eigrp traffic

5. show ip eigrp interfaces

6. show ip eigrp topology

Your score is

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

0 votes, 0 avg

Created by

Md Hedaet Shake

NSE 4

1 / 30

1. If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does
FortiGate take?

1. It archives the data for that IP address.

2. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval.

3. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file.

4. It notifies the administrator by sending an email.

2 / 30

2. Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.)

1. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2.

2. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes.

3. . It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes.

4. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are defined in advance.

3 / 30

3. Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.)

1. Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers.

2. Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required ports.

3. Include the group of guest users in a policy.

4. . Extend timeout timers.

4 / 30

4. In a high availability (HA) cluster operating in active-active mode, which of the following
correctly describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a
secondary FortiGate?

1. Client > primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server.

2. Clinet >secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server.

3. Client> primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> web server.

4. Client > secondary FortiGate> web server.

5 / 30

5. company needs to provide SSL VPN access to two user groups. The company also needs to display different welcome messages on the SSL VPN login screen for both user groups.
What is required in the SSL VPN configuration to meet these requirements?

1. Different virtual SSL VPN IP addresses for each group.

2. Different SSL VPN realms for each group.

3. Two firewall policies with different captive portals.

4. Two separate SSL VPNs in different interfaces mapping the same ssl.root.

6 / 30

6. Which configuration objects can be selected for the Source field of a firewall policy? (Choose
two.)

1. FQDN address

2. IP Pool

3. Firewall service

4. User or user group

7 / 30

7. Examine the routing database shown in the exhibit, and then answer the following question:

Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.)

1. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table.

2. The port3 default route has the highest distance.

3. There will be eight routes active in the routing table.

4. The port3 default route has the lowest metric.

8 / 30

8. Which of the following statements about NTLM authentication are correct? (Choose two.)

1. It is useful when users log in to DCs that are not monitored by a collector agent.

2. . It takes over as the primary authentication method when configured alongside FSSO.

3. NTLM-enabled web browsers are required.

4. Multi-domain environments require DC agents on every domain controller.

9 / 30

9. If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was
the certificate issued to?

1. A root CA

2. A subordinate CA

3. A person

4. A CRL

10 / 30

10. Which of the following services can be inspected by the DLP profile? (Choose three.)

1. FTP

2. IMAP

3. CIFS

4. HTTP-POST

5. NFS

11 / 30

11. Which Statements about virtual domains (VDOMs) arc true? (Choose two.)

1. Each VDOM can be configured with different system hostnames.

2. Different VLAN sub-interface of the same physical interface can be assigned to different VDOMs.

3. Transparent mode and NAT/Route mode VDOMs cannot be combined on the same FortiGate.

4. Each VDOM has its own routing table.

12 / 30

12. Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question.

Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same
destination?

1. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes.

2. . FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table

3. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route

4. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate.

13 / 30

13. How can you block or allow to Twitter using a firewall policy?

1. . Configure the Action field as Learn and select Twitter.

2. Configure the Destination field as Internet Service objects for Twitter.

3. Configure the Source field as Internet Service objects for Twitter.

4. Configure the Service field as Internet Service objects for Twitter.

14 / 30

14. What criteria does FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic?
(Choose two.)

1. . Lowest to highest policy ID number.

2. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy.

3. Services defined in the firewall policy.

4. Incoming and outgoing interfaces.

15 / 30

15. Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal
cost multipath (ECMP) routing? (Choose two.)

1. Metric

2. Distance

3. Cost

4. Priority

16 / 30

16. Why must you use aggressive mode when a local FortiGate IPSec gateway hosts multiple
dialup tunnels?

1. FortiClient only supports aggressive mode.

2. FortiGate is able to handle NATed connections only in aggressive mode.

3. Main mode does not support XAuth for user authentication.

4. . In aggressive mode, the remote peers are able to provide their peer IDs in the first message.

17 / 30

17. When using WPAD DNS method, which FQDN format do browsers use to query the DNS
server?

1. srv_proxy.<local-domain>/wpad.dat

2. wpad.<local-domain>

3. proxy.<local-domain>.wpad

4. srv_tcp.wpad.<local-domain>

18 / 30

18. An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices.
Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true?

1. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology.

2. A phase 2 configuration is not required.

3. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list.

4. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed.

19 / 30

19. On a FortiGate with a hard disk, how can you upload logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager?
(Choose two.)

1. real time

2. on-demand

3. store-and-upload

4. hourly

20 / 30

20. Which of the following features is supported by web filter in flow-based inspection mode
with NGFW mode set to profile-based?

1. Rating option

2. Static URL

3. FortiGuard Quotas

4. Search engines

21 / 30

21. Which statement is true regarding the policy ID number of a firewall policy?

1. Defines the order in which rules are processed.

2. Represents the number of objects used in the firewall policy.

3. Required to modify a firewall policy using the CLI.

4. Changes when firewall policies are reordered.

22 / 30

22. Examine this output from a debug flow:

Why did the FortiGate drop the packet?

1. It matched the default implicit firewall policy.

2. . It failed the RPF check.

3. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY.

4. The next-hop IP address is unreachable.

23 / 30

23. Which statement about DLP on FortiGate is true?

1. It can be applied to a firewall policy in a flow-based VDOM

2. It can archive files and messages.

3. Files can be sent to FortiSandbox for detecting DLP threats.

4. Traffic shaping can be applied to DLP sensors.

24 / 30

24. During the digital verification process, comparing the original and fresh hash results satisfies
which security requirement?

1. Authentication.

2. Signature verification.

3. Data integrity.

4. Non-repudiation.

25 / 30

25. How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user?

1. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the LDAP server.

2. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication.

3. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials.

4. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials.

26 / 30

26. An administrator needs to strengthen the security for SSL VPN access. Which of the following
statements are best practices to do so? (Choose three.)

1. Configure host restrictions by IP or MAC address.

2. Configure a client integrity check (host-check).

3. Configure two-factor authentication using security certificates.

4. . Configure SSL offloading to a content processor (FortiASIC).

5. Configure split tunneling for content inspection.

27 / 30

27. Which of the following statements about converse mode are true? (Choose two.)

1. Administrators cannot change the configuration.

2. Administrators can access the FortiGate only through the console port.

3. FortiGate stops sending files to FortiSandbox for inspection.

4. FortiGate stops doing RPF checks over incoming packets.

28 / 30

28. What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy,
in NGFW policy-based mode?

1. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only

2. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only.

3. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only.

4. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only.

29 / 30

29. An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address.
What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.)

1. Captive portal is enabled in the interface.

2. The interface has been configured for one-arm sniffer.

3. The interface is a member of a zone.

4. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair.

5. The operation mode is transparent.

30 / 30

30. What files are sent to FortiSandbox for inspection in flow-based inspection mode?

1. All suspicious files that are allowed to be submitted to FortiSandbox in the antivirus profile.

2. All suspicious files that match patterns defined in the antivirus profile.

3. All suspicious files that are above the defined oversize limit value in the protocol options.

4. . All suspicious files that do not have their hash value in the FortiGuard antivirus signature database.

Your score is

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

0 votes, 0 avg

Created by

Md Hedaet Shake

NSE4 Valid Dumps

1 / 184

1. Which of the following features is supported by web filter in flow-based inspection mode
with NGFW mode set to profile-based?

1. Search engines

2. Static URL

3. FortiGuard Quotas

4. Rating option

2 / 184

2. What is the primary FortiGate election process when the HA override setting is disabled?

1. Connected monitored ports > Priority > HA uptime > FortiGate Serial number

2. Connected monitored ports > HA uptime > Priority > FortiGate Serial number

3. Connected monitored ports > System uptime > Priority > FortiGate Serial number

4. Connected monitored ports > Priority > System uptime > FortiGate Serial number

3 / 184

3. Which two statements are correct about a software switch on FortiGate?

1. Can act as a Layer 2 switch as well as a Layer 3 router.

2. It can group only physical Interfaces.

3. All interfaces in the software switch share the same IP address.

4. It can be configured only when FortlGate is operating in NAT mode.

4 / 184

4. Which of statement is true about SSL VPN web mode?

1. The tunnel is up while the client is connected.

2. It assigns a virtual IP address to the client

3. It supports a limited number of protocols.

4. The external network application sends data through the VPN.

5 / 184

5. Which three pieces of information does FortiGate use to identify the hostname of the SSL server when SSL
certificate inspection is enabled? (Choose three.)

1. The subject alternative name (SAN) field in the server certificate

2. The host field in the HTTP header

3. The server name indication (SNI) extension in the client hello message

4. The serial number in the server certificate

5. The subject field in the server certificate

6 / 184

6. A network administrator has enabled SSL certificate inspection and antivirus on FortiGate detects the virus and blocks the file. When downloading the same file that's be downloaded.

What is the reason for the felled virus detection by FortiGate?

1. Antivirus profile configuration is incorrect

2. Antivirus definitions are not up to date

3. SSL/SSH inspection profile is incorrect

4. Application control as not enabled

7 / 184

7. You have enabled logging on your FortiGate device for Event logs and all Security logs, and you have set
up logging to use the FortiGate local disk.

What is the default behavior when the local disk is full?

1. Logs are overwritten and the only warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the threshold of 95%.

2. No new log is recorded after the warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the threshold of 95%.

3. Logs are overwritten and the first warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the threshold of 75%.

4. No new log is recorded until you manually clear logs from the local disk.

8 / 184

8. An administrator wants to configure timeouts for users Regardless of the user's behavior, the timer should start and expire after the configured value.
Which timeout option should be configured on FortiGate?

1. Soft-timeout

2. Idle timeout

3. New-session

4. Auth-on-demand

5. Hard-timeout

9 / 184

9. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows a CLI output of firewall policies, proxy policies, and proxy addresses.
How does FortiGate process the traffic sent to http://www.fortinet.com?

10 / 184

10. D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D
What is the effect of enabling auto-negotiate on the phase 2 configuration of an IPsec tunnel?

1. FortiGate automatically negotiates different encryption and authentication algorithms with the remote peer.

2. FortiGate automatically negotiates different local and remote addresses with the remote peer.

3. FortiGate automatically negotiates a new security association after the existing security association expires.

4. FortiGate automatically brings up the IPsec tunnel and keeps it up, regardless of activity on the IPsec tunnel.

11 / 184

11. Refer to the exhibit to view the firewall policy.

Which statement is correct if well-known viruses are not being blocked?

1. Web filter should be enabled on the firewall policy to complement the antivirus profile.

2. The action on the firewall policy must be set to deny.

3. The firewall policy does not apply deep content inspection.

4. The firewall policy must be configured in proxy-based inspection mode

12 / 184

12. Refer to the exhibit.

Which contains a network diagram and routing table output.
The Student is unable to access Webserver.
What is the cause of the problem and what is the solution for the problem?

1. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 10.0.4.0/24 through wan1

2. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 203.0.114.24/32 through port3.

3. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 203.0.114.24/32 through port3.

4. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.

13 / 184

13. Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question.

Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same
destination?

1. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate.

2. . FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table

3. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route

4. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes.

14 / 184

14. Which two statements are correct about SLA targets? (Choose two.)

1. You can configure only two SLA targets per one Performance SLA.

2. SLA targets are used only when referenced by an SD-WAN rule.

3. SLA targets are required for SD-WAN rules with a Best Quality strategy.

4. SLA targets are optional.

15 / 184

15. An administrator wants to configure Dead Peer Detection (DPD) on IPSEC VPN for DPD probes only when no traffic is observed in the tunnel.
Which DPO mode on FortiGate wtll meet the above requirement?

1. On Idel

2. On Demand

3. Disabled

4. Enabled

16 / 184

16. Which three statements about security associations (SA) in IPsec are correct? (Choose three.)

1. Phase 2 SAs are used for encrypting and decrypting the data exchanged through the tunnel.

2. Both the phase 1 SA and phase 2 SA are bidirectional.

3. An SA never expires.

4. Phase 2 SA expiration can be time-based, volume-based, or both.

5. A phase 1 SA is bidirectional, while a phase 2 SA is directional.

17 / 184

17. Which of the following statements about NTLM authentication are correct? (Choose two.)

1. Multi-domain environments require DC agents on every domain controller.

2. It is useful when users log in to DCs that are not monitored by a collector agent.

3. . It takes over as the primary authentication method when configured alongside FSSO.

4. NTLM-enabled web browsers are required.

18 / 184

18. When a firewall policy is created, which attribute is added to the policy to support recording logs to a
FortiAnalyzer or a FortiManager and improves functionality when a FortiGate is integrated with these
devices?

1. Log ID

2. Sequence ID

3. Universally Unique Identifier

4. Policy ID

19 / 184

19. Which statement about the policy ID number of a firewall policy is true?

1. It defines the order in which rules are processed.

2. It changes when firewall policies are reordered.

3. It is required to modify a firewall policy using the CLI.

4. It represents the number of objects used in the firewall policy.

20 / 184

20. Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.)

1. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2.

2. It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes

3. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are defined in advance.

4. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes.

21 / 184

21. Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.)

1. . It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes.

2. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes.

3. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2.

4. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are defined in advance.

22 / 184

22. Refer to the exhibit
The exhibit shower the IPS sensor configuration.
If traffic matches this IPS sensor, which two actions is the sensor expected to take? (Choose two).

1. The sensor will gather a packet log for all matched traffic.

2. The sensor will block all attacks aimed at Windows server.

3. The sensor will reset all connections that match these signatures.

4. The sensor will allow attackers matching the NTP>Spoofed.KoD.DoS signature.

23 / 184

23. Given the security fabric topology shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

1. This security fabric topology is a logical topology view.

2. Device detection is disabled on all FortiGate devices

3. There are five devices that are part of the security fabric.

4. There are 19 security recommendations for the security fabric.

24 / 184

24. A network administrator is configuring a new IPsec VPN tunnel on FortiGate. The remote peer IP address
is dynamic, in addition, the remote peer does not support a dynamic DNS update service.
What type of remote gateway should tie administrator configure on FortiGate for the new IPsec VPN tunnel
to work?

1. Pre-shared Key

2. Dialup User

3. Dynamic DNS

4. Static IP Address

25 / 184

25. Which statement is true regarding the policy ID number of a firewall policy?

1. Required to modify a firewall policy using the CLI.

2. Represents the number of objects used in the firewall policy.

3. Changes when firewall policies are reordered.

4. Defines the order in which rules are processed.

26 / 184

26. Refer to the web filter raw logs.

Based on the raw logs shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?

1. Social networking web filter category is configured with the action set to authenticate

2. Access to the social networking web filter category was explicitly blocked to all users

3. The name of the firewall policy is all_users_web.

4. The action on firewall policy ID 1 is set to warning

27 / 184

27. A network administrator wants to set up redundant IPsec VPN tunnels on FortiGate by using two IPsec

VPN tunnels and static routes.
* All traffic must be routed through the primary tunnel when both tunnels are up
* The secondary tunnel must be used only if the primary tunnel goes down
* In addition, FortiGate should be able to detect a dead tunnel to speed up tunnel failover
Which two key configuration changes are needed on FortiGate to meet the design requirements? (Choose
two,)

1. Enable Dead Peer Detection

2. Enable Auto-negotiate and Autokey Keep Alive on the phase 2 configuration of both tunnels.

3. Configure a lower distance on the static route for the primary tunnel, and a higher distance on the static route for the secondary tunnel

4. Configure a high distance on the static route for the primary tunnel, and a lower distance on the static route for the secondary tunnel.

28 / 184

28. Which two VDOMs are the default VDOMs created when FortiGate is set up in split VDOM mode?
(Choose two.)

1. FG-traffic

2. FG-Mgmt

3. Root

4. Mgmt

29 / 184

29. Examine the following web filtering log.

Which statement about the log message is true?

1. The web site miniclip.com matches a static URL filter whose action is set to Warning

2. The action for the category Games is set to block

3. The name of the applied web filter profile is default

4. The usage quota for the IP address 10.0.1.10 has expired

30 / 184

30. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the administrator profile settings, what permissions must the administrator set to run the
diagnose firewall auth list CLI command on FortiGate?

1. Read/Write permission for Firewall

2. Custom permission for Network

3. CLI diagnostics commands permission

4. Read/Write permission for Log & Report

31 / 184

31. What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy,
in NGFW policy-based mode?

1. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only.

2. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only.

3. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only.

4. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only

32 / 184

32. Which statements are true regarding firewall policy NAT using the outgoing interface IP address with
fixed port disabled? (Choose two.)

1. Connections are tracked using source port and source MAC address.

2. Source IP is translated to the outgoing interface IP.

3. This is known as many-to-one NAT.

4. Port address translation is not use

33 / 184

33. Refer to the exhibit.

In the network shown in the exhibit, the web client cannot connect to the HTTP web server. The
administrator runs the FortiGate built-in sniffer and gets the output as shown in the exhibit.
What should the administrator do next to troubleshoot the problem?

1. Execute another sniffer in the FortiGate, this time with the filter “host 10.0.1.10”

2. Capture the traffic using an external sniffer connected to port1.

3. Run a sniffer on the web server.

4. Execute a debug flow.

34 / 184

34. Which statements about the firmware upgrade process on an active-active HA cluster are true?
(Choose two.)

1. Uninterruptable upgrade is enabled by default

2. load balancing is temporally disabled while upgrading the firmware.

3. Only secondary FortiGate devices are rebooted.

4. The firmware image must be manually uploaded to each FortiGate.

35 / 184

35. Which three security features require the intrusion prevention system (IPS) engine to function? (Choose
three.)

1. Web application firewall

2. Application control

3. DNS filter

4. Antivirus in flow-based inspection

5. Web filter in flow-based inspection

36 / 184

36. Examine this PAC file configuration

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)

1. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy.

2. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy.

3. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060.

4. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate

37 / 184

37. A FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) sub interfaces added
to the physical interface.
Which statements about the VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP
addresses in different subnets.

1. The two VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet.

2. The two VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different VDOMs.

3. The two VLAN sub interfaces must have different VLAN IDs.

4. The two VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.

38 / 184

38. Consider the topology:
Application on a Windows machine <--{SSL VPN} -->FGT--> Telnet to Linux server.
An administrator is investigating a problem where an application establishes a Telnet session to a Linux
server over the SSL VPN through FortiGate and the idle session times out after about 90 minutes. The
administrator would like to increase or disable this timeout.
The administrator has already verified that the issue is not caused by the application or Linux server. This
issue does not happen when the application establishes a Telnet connection to the Linux server directly
on the LAN.
What two changes can the administrator make to resolve the issue without affecting services running
through FortiGate? (Choose two.)

1. Create a new firewall policy and place it above the existing SSLVPN policy for the SSL VPN traffic, and set the new TELNET service object in the policy

2. Set the session TTL on the SSLVPN policy to maximum, so the idle session timeout will not happen after 90 minutes.

3. Set the maximum session TTL value for the TELNET service object

4. Create a new service object for TELNET and set the maximum session TTL.

39 / 184

39. Refer to the exhibit

The exhibit shows proxy policies and proxy addresses, the authentication rule and authentication scheme,
users, and firewall address.
An explicit web proxy is configured for subnet range 10.0.1.0/24 with three explicit web proxy policies.
The authentication rule is configured to authenticate HTTP requests for subnet range 10.0.1.0/24 with a
form-based authentication scheme for the FortiGate local user database.
Users will be prompted for authentication.
How will FortiGate process the traffic when the HTTP request comes from a machine with the source IP
10.0.1.10 to the destination http://www.fortinet.com? (Choose two.)

1. If a Microsoft Internet Explorer browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.

2. If a Mozilla Firefox browser is used with User-A credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.

3. If a Google Chrome browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed

4. If a Mozilla Firefox browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.

40 / 184

40. Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal
cost multipath (ECMP) routing? (Choose two.)

1. Metric

2. Cost

3. Priority

4. Distance

41 / 184

41. Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate HA cluster virtual IP addresses? (Choose two.)

1. A change in the virtual IP address happens when a FortiGate device joins or leaves the cluster.

2. Heartbeat interfaces have virtual IP addresses that are manually assigned.

3. Virtual IP addresses are used to distinguish between cluster members.

4. The primary device in the cluster is always assigned IP address 169.254.0.1.

42 / 184

42. Refer to the FortiGuard connection debug output.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

1. There is at least one server that lost packets consecutively.

2. A local FortiManager is one of the servers FortiGate communicates with.

3. One server was contacted to retrieve the contract information

4. FortiGate is using default FortiGuard communication setting

43 / 184

43. An administrator needs to strengthen the security for SSL VPN access. Which of the following
statements are best practices to do so? (Choose three.)

1. Configure two-factor authentication using security certificates.

2. Configure a client integrity check (host-check).

3. Configure split tunneling for content inspection.

4. Configure host restrictions by IP or MAC address.

5. . Configure SSL offloading to a content processor (FortiASIC).

44 / 184

44. Which two statements ate true about the Security Fabric rating? (Choose two.)

1. It provides executive summaries of the four largest areas of security focus.

2. Many of the security issues can be fixed immediately by click ng Apply where available

3. The Security Fabric rating is a free service that comes bundled with alt FortiGate devices.

4. The Security Fabric rating must be run on the root FortiGate device in the Security Fabric

45 / 184

45. Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.)

1. Include the group of guest users in a policy.

2. Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers.

3. Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required ports.

4. . Extend timeout timers.

46 / 184

46. Which CLI command allows administrators to troubleshoot Layer 2 issues, such as an IP address
conflict?

1. get system performance status

2. get system status

3. diagnose sys top

4. get system arp

47 / 184

47. Which of the following are purposes of NAT traversal in IPsec? (Choose two.)

1. To delete intermediary NAT devices in the tunnel path.

2. To force a new DH exchange with each phase 2 rekey.

3. To dynamically change phase 1 negotiation mode aggressive mode.

4. To encapsulation ESP packets in UDP packets using port 4500.

48 / 184

48. The exhibit contains the configuration for an SD-WAN Performance SLA, as well as the output of
diagnose sys virtual-wan-link health-check.
Which interface will be selected as an outgoing interface?

1. port1

2. port3

3. port4

4. port2

49 / 184

49. Refer to the exhibit

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The
administrator has determined that phase 1 fails to come up. The administrator has also re-entered the
pre-shared key on both FortiGate devices to make sure they match.
Based on the phase 1 configuration and the diagram shown in the exhibit, which two configuration
changes will bring phase 1 up? (Choose two.)

1. On HQ-FortiGate, disable Diffie-Helman group 2.

2. On both FortiGate devices, set Dead Peer Detection to On Demand.

3. On Remote-FortiGate, set port2 as Interface.

4. On HQ-FortiGate, set IKE mode to Main (ID protection).

50 / 184

50. If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does
FortiGate take?

1. It notifies the administrator by sending an email.

2. It archives the data for that IP address.

3. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval.

4. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file.

51 / 184

51. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the raw log, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

1. This is a security log.

2. Traffic is blocked because Action is set to DENY in the firewall policy

3. Log severity is set to error on FortiGate.

4. Traffic belongs to the root VDOM.

52 / 184

52. Which two policies must be configured to allow traffic on a policy-based next-generation firewall
(NGFW) FortiGate? (Choose two.)

1. Firewall policy

2. SSL inspection and authentication policy

3. Security policy

4. Policy rule

53 / 184

53. Which two statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)

1. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.

2. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.

3. In flow-based inspection mode. FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously transmits it to the client.

4. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning, before sending it to the client.

54 / 184

54. Which configuration objects can be selected for the Source field of a firewall policy? (Choose
two.)

1. User or user group

2. Firewall service

3. IP Pool

4. FQDN address

55 / 184

55. 141.Which three criteria can a FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic?
(Choose three.)

1. Source defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.

2. Services defined in the firewall policy.

3. Lowest to highest policy ID number.

4. Destination defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.

5. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy.

56 / 184

56. Refer to the exhibits.

The SSL VPN connection fails when a user attempts to connect to it.
What should the user do to successfully connect to SSL VPN?

1. Change the Server IP address

2. Change the SSL VPN portal to the tunnel.

3. Change the SSL VPN port on the client.

4. Change the idle-timeout

57 / 184

57. Which two statements are correct about NGFW Policy-based mode? (Choose two)

1. NGFN policy-based mode can only be applied globally and not.

2. NGFW policy-based mode policies support only flow inspection

3. NGFW policy-based mode does not require the use of central source NAT

4. NGFW policy-based mode supports creating applications and webfilter

58 / 184

58. An administrator needs to configure VPN user access for multiple sites using the same soft FortiToken.
Each site has a FortiGate VPN gateway.
What must an administrator do to achieve this objective?

1. The administrator must use the user self-registration server

2. The administrator must use a FortiAuthenticator device.

3. The administrator can register the same FortiToken on more than one FortiGate.

4. The administrator can use a third-party radius OTP server.

59 / 184

59. Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose three.)

1. WinSecLog

2. Novell API

3. WMI

4. NetAPI

5. FortiGate polling

60 / 184

60. Which Security rating scorecard helps identify configuration weakness and best practice violations in
your network?

1. Fabric Coverage

2. Security Posture

3. Automated Response

4. Optimization

61 / 184

61. Examine this output from a debug flow:

Why did the FortiGate drop the packet?

1. It matched the default implicit firewall policy.

2. . It failed the RPF check.

3. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY.

4. The next-hop IP address is unreachable.

62 / 184

62. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit contains a network diagram, virtual IP, IP pool, and firewall policies configuration.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.
The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10 .0.1.254. /24.
The first firewall policy has NAT enabled using IP Pool.
The second firewall policy is configured with a VIP as the destination address.
Which IP address will be used to source NAT the internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP
address 10.0.1.10?

1. 10.200.3.1

2. 10.200.1.10

3. 10.200.1.1

4. 10.200.1.100

63 / 184

63. Which scanning technique on FortiGate can be enabled only on the CLI?

1. Heuristics scan

2. Trojan scan

3. Antivirus scan

4. Ransomware scan

64 / 184

64. An administrator does not want to report the logon events of service accounts to FortiGate.
What setting on the collector agent is required to achieve this?

1. Add the support of NTLM authentication.

2. Add user accounts to the Ignore User List.

3. Add user accounts to the FortiGate group fitter

4. Add user accounts to Active Directory (AD).

65 / 184

65. Refer to the exhibit.

Review the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) profile signature settings.
Which statement is correct in adding the FTP.Login.Failed signature to the IPS sensor profile?

1. Traffic matching the signature will be allowed and logged.

2. The signature setting uses a custom rating threshold.

3. The signature setting includes a group of other signatures

4. Traffic matching the signature will be silently dropped and logged.

66 / 184

66. Refer to the exhibit.

Which contains a session list output. Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which statement is
true?

1. Destination NAT is disabled in the firewall policy.

2. Overload NAT IP pool is used in the firewall policy

3. One-to-one NAT IP pool is used in the firewall policy

4. Port block allocation IP pool is used in the firewall policy.

67 / 184

67. Which three options are the remote log storage options you can configure on FortiGate? (Choose
three.)

1. FortiSIEM

2. FortiCache

3. FortiCloud

4. FortiSandbox

5. FortiAnalyzer

68 / 184

68. Examine the routing database shown in the exhibit, and then answer the following question:

Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.)

1. There will be eight routes active in the routing table.

2. The port3 default route has the highest distance.

3. The port3 default route has the lowest metric.

4. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table.

69 / 184

69. On a FortiGate with a hard disk, how can you upload logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager?
(Choose two.)

1. real time

2. hourly

3. store-and-upload

4. on-demand

70 / 184

70. Which statement about the IP authentication header (AH) used by IPsec is true?

1. AH provides data integrity bur no encryption.

2. AH does not provide any data integrity or encryption

3. AH does not support perfect forward secrecy.

4. AH provides strong data integrity but weak encryption.

71 / 184

71. Which three statements are true regarding session-based authentication? (Choose three.)

1. It is not recommended if multiple users are behind the source NAT

2. HTTP sessions are treated as a single user.

3. It requires more resources.

4. IP sessions from the same source IP address are treated as a single user

5. It can differentiate among multiple clients behind the same source IP address.

72 / 184

72. When browsing to an internal web server using a web-mode SSL VPN bookmark, which IP address is
used as the source of the HTTP request?

1. The public IP address of the FortiGate device.

2. The remote user’s virtual IP address.

3. The internal IP address of the FortiGate device

4. remote user’s public IP address

73 / 184

73. An administrator has configured the following settings:

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

1. The number of logs generated by denied traffic is reduced.

2. Denied users are blocked for 30 minutes

3. A session for denied traffic is created.

4. Device detection on all interfaces is enforced for 30 minutes

74 / 184

74. Which engine handles application control traffic on the next-generation firewall?

1. Detection engine

2. Flow engine

3. Antivirus engine

4. Intrusion prevention system engine

75 / 184

75. Refer to the exhibit.

According to the certificate values shown in the exhibit, which type of entity was the certificate issued to?

1. A bridge CA

2. A root CA

3. A user

4. A subordinate

76 / 184

76. How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user?

1. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the LDAP server.

2. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication.

3. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials.

4. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials.

77 / 184

77. How can you block or allow to Twitter using a firewall policy?

1. Configure the Source field as Internet Service objects for Twitter.

2. Configure the Destination field as Internet Service objects for Twitter.

3. . Configure the Action field as Learn and select Twitter.

4. Configure the Service field as Internet Service objects for Twitter.

78 / 184

78. View the exhibit.

Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.)

1. The TunnelB route is the primary route for reaching the remote site. The TunnelA route is used only if the TunnelB VPN is down.

2. This is a redundant IPsec setup.

3. Dead peer detection must be disabled to support this type of IPsec setup.

4. This setup requires at least two firewall policies with the action set to IPsec.

79 / 184

79. Which statement regarding the firewall policy authentication timeout is true?

1. It is a hard timeout. The FortiGate removes the temporary policy for a user’s source MAC address after this timer has expired.

2. It is an idle timeout. The FortiGate considers a user to be “idle” if it does not see any packets coming from the user’s source IP.

3. It is a hard timeout. The FortiGate removes the temporary policy for a user’s source IP address after this timer has expired.

4. It is an idle timeout. The FortiGate considers a user to be “idle” if it does not see any packets coming from the user’s source MAC.

80 / 184

80. An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices.
Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true?

1. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed.

2. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology.

3. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list.

4. A phase 2 configuration is not required.

81 / 184

81. Which three CLI commands can you use to troubleshoot Layer 3 issues if the issue is in neither the
physical layer nor the link layer? (Choose three.)

1. diagnose sniffer packet any

2. execute traceroute

3. execute ping

4. get system arp

5. diagnose sys top

82 / 184

82. View the exhibit.

A user behind the FortiGate is trying to go to http://www.addictinggames.com (Addicting Games). Based
on this configuration, which statement is true?

1. Addicting.Games can be allowed only if the Filter Overrides actions is set to Exempt

2. Addicting.Games is blocked on the Filter Overrides configuration.

3. Addcting.Games is allowed based on the Categories configuration

4. Addicting.Games is allowed based on the Application Overrides configuration

83 / 184

83. An organization’s employee needs to connect to the office through a high-latency internet connection.
Which SSL VPN setting should the administrator adjust to prevent the SSL VPN negotiation failure?

1. Change the session-ttl.

2. Change the idle-timeout.

3. Change the udp idle timer.

4. Change the login timeout

84 / 184

84. A network administrator has enabled full SSL inspection and web filtering on FortiGate. When visiting any
HTTPS websites, the browser reports certificate warning errors. When visiting HTTP websites, the browser
does not report errors.
What is the reason for the certificate warning errors?

1. FortiGate does not support full SSL inspection when web filtering is enabled.

2. There are network connectivity issues.

3. The CA certificate set on the SSL/SSH inspection profile has not been imported into the browser.

4. The browser requires a software update.

85 / 184

85. What inspection mode does FortiGate use if it is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall
(NGFW)?

1. Proxy-based inspection

2. Flow-based inspection

3. Full Content inspection

4. Certificate inspection

86 / 184

86. Which of the following statements about central NAT are true? (Choose two.)

1. Central NAT can be enabled or disabled from the CLI only.

2. Destination NAT, using central NAT, requires a VIP object as the destination address in a firewall.

3. IP tool references must be removed from existing firewall policies before enabling central NAT.

4. Source NAT, using central NAT, requires at least one central SNAT policy.

87 / 184

87. Why does FortiGate keep TCP sessions in the session table for some seconds even after both sides
(client and server) have terminated the session?

1. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets

2. To finish any inspection operations

3. To generate logs

4. To remove the NAT operation

88 / 184

88. Which of the following services can be inspected by the DLP profile? (Choose three.)

1. FTP

2. NFS

3. CIFS

4. HTTP-POST

5. IMAP

89 / 184

89. Refer to the exhibit

Examine the intrusion prevention system (IPS) diagnostic command.
Which statement is correct If option 5 was used with the IPS diagnostic command and the outcome was a
decrease in the CPU usage?

1. The IPS engine was blocking all traffic.

2. The IPS engine will continue to run in a normal state.

3. The IPS engine was unable to prevent an intrusion attack.

4. The IPS engine was inspecting high volume of traffic.

90 / 184

90. Examine this FortiGate configuration

Based on the diagnostic outputs above, how is the FortiGate handling the traffic for new sessions that
require inspection?

1. It is allowed, but with no inspection

2. It is allowed and inspected as long as the inspection is flow based

3. It is allowed and inspected, as long as the only inspection required is antivirus

4. It is dropped

91 / 184

91. Refer to the exhibit.

Given the interfaces shown in the exhibit. which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

1. D. port1-vlan and port2-vlan1 can be assigned in the same VDOM or to different VDOMs

2. port1 is a native VLAN.

3. port1-vlan10 and port2-vlan10 are part of the same broadcast domain

4. Traffic between port2 and port2-vlan1 is allowed by default.

92 / 184

92. Refer to the exhibits.

The exhibits show the SSL and authentication policy (Exhibit A) and the security policy (Exhibit B) tor
Facebook.
Users are given access to the Facebook web application. They can play video content hosted on
Facebook but they are unable to leave reactions on videos or other types of posts.
Which part of the policy configuration must you change to resolve the issue?

1. Force access to Facebook using the HTTP service.

2. The SSL inspection needs to be a deep content inspection.

3. Add Facebook in the URL category in the security policy.

4. Additional application signatures are required to add to the security policy.

93 / 184

93. Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate FSSO agentless polling mode? (Choose two.)

1. FortiGate points the collector agent to use a remote LDAP server.

2. FortiGate queries AD by using the LDAP to retrieve user group information

3. FortiGate uses the SMB protocol to read the event viewer logs from the DCs.

4. FortiGate uses the AD server as the collector agent.

94 / 184

94. Examine the IPS sensor configuration shown in the exhibit, and then answer the question below.

An administrator has configured the WINDOWS_SERVERS IPS sensor in an attempt to determine
whether the influx of HTTPS traffic is an attack attempt or not. After applying the IPS sensor, FortiGate is
still not generating any IPS logs for the HTTPS traffic.
What is a possible reason for this?

1. The IPS filter is missing the Protocol: HTTPS option.

2. A DoS policy should be used, instead of an IPS sensor

3. The HTTPS signatures have not been added to the sensor

4. A DoS policy should be used, instead of an IPS sensor.

5. The firewall policy is not using a full SSL inspection profile.

95 / 184

95. Which security feature does FortiGate provide to protect servers located in the internal networks from
attacks such as SQL injections?

1. Web application firewall

2. Application control

3. Denial of Service

4. Antivirus

96 / 184

96. How does FortiGate act when using SSL VPN in web mode?

1. FortiGate acts as router.

2. FortiGate acts as an HTTP reverse proxy.

3. FortiGate acts as DNS server

4. FortiGate acts as an FDS server.

97 / 184

97. An administrator has configured two-factor authentication to strengthen SSL VPN access.
Which additional best practice can an administrator implement?

1. Configure Source IP Pools.

2. Configure split tunneling in tunnel mode

3. Configure host check.

4. Configure different SSL VPN realms.

98 / 184

98. An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address.
What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.)

1. The interface has been configured for one-arm sniffer.

2. The interface is a member of a zone.

3. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair.

4. The operation mode is transparent.

5. Captive portal is enabled in the interface.

99 / 184

99. Why does FortiGate Keep TCP sessions in the session table for several seconds, even after both
sides (client and server) have terminated the session?

1. To generate logs

2. To remove the NAT operation

3. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets

4. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets

100 / 184

100. By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering with FortiGuard
servers.
Which two CLI commands will cause FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate with FortiGuard servers for live web filtering? (Choose two.)

1. set protocol udp

2. set fortiguard anycast disable

3. set webfilter-force-off disable

4. set webfilter-cache disable

101 / 184

101. What types of traffic and attacks can be blocked by a web application firewall (WAF) profile? (Choose
three.)

1. Traffic to botnetservers

2. Traffic to inappropriate web sites

3. Server information disclosure attacks

4. Credit card data leaks

5. SQL injection attacks

102 / 184

102. What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy, in NGFW
policy-based mode?

1. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only.

2. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only.

3. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only.

4. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only

103 / 184

103. Which of the following SD-WAN load –balancing method use interface weight value to distribute traffic? (Choose two.)

1. Volume

2. Source IP

3. Spillover

4. Session

104 / 184

104. Which two settings can be separately configured per VDOM on a FortiGate device? (Choose two.)

1. FortiGuaid update servers

2. System time

3. Operating mode

4. NGFW mode

105 / 184

105. Which two statements are true about collector agent standard access mode? (Choose two.)

1. Standard mode uses Windows convention-NetBios: Domain\Username

2. Standard mode security profiles apply to user groups.

3. Standard access mode supports nested groups.

4. Standard mode security profiles apply to organizational units (OU).

106 / 184

106. How do you format the FortiGate flash disk?

1. Load a debug FortiOS image

2. Load the hardware test (HQIP) image

3. Execute the CLI command execute formatlogdisk

4. Select the format boot device option from the BIOS menu.

107 / 184

107. An administrator needs to increase network bandwidth and provide redundancy.
What interface type must the administrator select to bind multiple FortiGate interfaces?

1. Software Switch interface

2. VLAN interface

3. Aggregate interface

4. Redundant interface

108 / 184

108. Refer to the exhibit to view the application control profile.

Users who use Apple FaceTime video conferences are unable to set up meetings.
In this scenario, which statement is true?

1. The category of Apple FaceTime is being monitored.

2. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom blocked filter.

3. The category of Apple FaceTime is being blocked

4. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom monitored filter

109 / 184

109. Refer to the exhibit.

The Root and To_Internet VDOMs are configured in NAT mode. The DMZ and Local VDOMs are
configured in transparent mode.
The Root VDOM is the management VDOM. The To_Internet VDOM allows LAN users to access internet.
The To_lnternet VDOM is the only VDOM with internet access and is directly connected to ISP modem.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

1. Inter-VDOM links are not required between the Root and To_Internet VDOMs because the Root VDOM is used only as a management VDOM

2. A static route is required on the To_Internet VDOM to allow LAN users to access the internet

3. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and Root VDOMs

4. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and DMZ VDOMs.

110 / 184

110. Which downstream FortiGate VOOM is used to join the Security Fabric ?

1. Global VDOM

2. FG-traffic VDOM

3. Customer VOOM

4. Root VDOOM

111 / 184

111. What files are sent to FortiSandbox for inspection in flow-based inspection mode?

1. . All suspicious files that do not have their hash value in the FortiGuard antivirus signature database.

2. All suspicious files that match patterns defined in the antivirus profile.

3. All suspicious files that are above the defined oversize limit value in the protocol options.

4. All suspicious files that are allowed to be submitted to FortiSandbox in the antivirus profile.

112 / 184

112. Which of the following statements about backing up logs from the CLI and downloading logs from the GUI
are true? (Choose two.)

1. Log downloads from the GUI are limited to the current filter view

2. Log backups from the CLI cannot be restored to another FortiGate.

3. Log downloads from the GUI are stored as LZ4 compressed files.

4. Log backups from the CLI can be configured to upload to FTP as a scheduled time

113 / 184

113. 61.Which two attributes are required on a certificate so it can be used as a CA certificate on SSL Inspection? (Choose two.)

1. The keyUsage extension must be set to keyCertSign.

2. The common name on the subject field must use a wildcard name

3. The CA extension must be set to TRUE.

4. The issuer must be a public CA.

114 / 184

114. Refer to the exhibit

The exhibits show a network diagram and the explicit web proxy configuration.
In the command diagnose sniffer packet, what filter can you use to capture the traffic between the client
and the explicit web proxy?

1. ‘host 192.168.0.1 and port 80’

2. ‘host 192.168.0.2 and port 8080’

3. ‘host 10.0.0.50 and port 8080’

4. ‘host 10.0.0.50 and port 80’

115 / 184

115. An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices.
Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true?

1. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list.

2. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed

3. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology.

4. A phase 2 configuration is not required.

116 / 184

116. Refer to the exhibits to view the firewall policy (Exhibit A) and the antivirus profile (Exhibit B).

Which statement is correct if a user is unable to receive a block replacement message when downloading
an infected file for the first time?

1. The flow-based inspection is used, which resets the last packet to the user.

2. The volume of traffic being inspected is too high for this model of FortiGate.

3. The firewall policy performs the full content inspection on the file.

4. The intrusion prevention security profile needs to be enabled when using flow-based inspection mode

117 / 184

117. Which certificate value can FortiGate use to determine the relationship between the issuer and the
certificate?

1. Subject value

2. SMMIE Capabilities value

3. Subject Alternative Name value

4. Subject Key Identifier value

118 / 184

118. Refer to the exhibit, which contains a session diagnostic output.

Which statement is true about the session diagnostic output?

1. The session is a UDP unidirectional state.

2. The session is a bidirectional TCP connection

3. The session is in TCP ESTABLISHED state

4. The session is a bidirectional UDP connection

119 / 184

119. Which of the following statements about converse mode are true? (Choose two.)

1. FortiGate stops sending files to FortiSandbox for inspection.

2. FortiGate stops doing RPF checks over incoming packets.

3. Administrators cannot change the configuration.

4. Administrators can access the FortiGate only through the console port.

120 / 184

120. An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address.
What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.)

1. The interface has been configured for one-arm sniffer

2. The interface is a member of a zone

3. The operation mode is transparent

4. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair.

5. Captive portal is enabled in the interface.

121 / 184

121. If the Services field is configured in a Virtual IP (VIP), which statement is true when central NAT is
used?

1. The Services field removes the requirement to create multiple VIPs for different services.

2. The Services field is used when you need to bundle several VIPs into VIP groups.

3. The Services field prevents multiple sources of traffic from using multiple services to connect to a single computer.

4. The Services field prevents SNAT and DNAT from being combined in the same policy.

122 / 184

122. company needs to provide SSL VPN access to two user groups. The company also needs to display different welcome messages on the SSL VPN login screen for both user groups.
What is required in the SSL VPN configuration to meet these requirements?

1. Two firewall policies with different captive portals.

2. Two separate SSL VPNs in different interfaces mapping the same ssl.root.

3. Different virtual SSL VPN IP addresses for each group.

4. Different SSL VPN realms for each group.

123 / 184

123. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit contains a network diagram, firewall policies, and a firewall address object configuration.
An administrator created a Deny policy with default settings to deny Webserver access for Remote-user2.
Remote-user2 is still able to access Webserver.
Which two changes can the administrator make to deny Webserver access for Remote-User2? (Choose
two.)

1. Set the Destination address as Web_server in the Deny policy

2. Disable match-vip in the Deny policy.

3. Set the Destination address as Deny_IP in the Allow-access policy

4. Enable match vip in the Deny policy.

124 / 184

124. What criteria does FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic?
(Choose two.)

1. Incoming and outgoing interfaces.

2. Services defined in the firewall policy.

3. . Lowest to highest policy ID number.

4. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy.

125 / 184

125. NGFW mode allows policy-based configuration for most inspection rules.
Which security profile’s configuration does not change when you enable policy-based inspection?

1. Antivirus

2. Web filtering

3. Web proxy

4. Application control

126 / 184

126. Which two protocol options are available on the CLI but not on the GUI when configuring an SD-WAN
Performance SLA? (Choose two.)

1. DNS

2. ping

3. udp-echo

4. TWAMP

127 / 184

127. Which two protocols are used to enable administrator access of a FortiGate device? (Choose two.)

1. SSH

2. HTTPS

3. FTM

4. FortiTelemetry

128 / 184

128. If Internet Service is already selected as Source in a firewall policy, which other configuration objects can
be added to the Source filed of a firewall policy?

1. User or User Group

2. Once Internet Service is selected, no other object can be added

3. FQDN address

4. IP address

129 / 184

129. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices.
The administrator has determined that phase 1 status is up. but phase 2 fails to come up.
Based on the phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit, what configuration change will bring phase 2
up?

1. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Auto-negotiate

2. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Diffie-Hellman Group 2

3. On Remote-FortiGate, set Seconds to 43200.

4. On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256

130 / 184

130. Which two statements are true when FortiGate is in transparent mode? (Choose two.)

1. By default, all interfaces are part of the same broadcast domain.

2. The existing network IP schema must be changed when installing a transparent mode.

3. Static routes are required to allow traffic to the next hop.

4. FortiGate forwards frames without changing the MAC address

131 / 184

131. Which two statements about IPsec authentication on FortiGate are correct? (Choose two.)

1. Enabling XAuth results in a faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged

2. FortiGate supports pre-shared key and signature as authentication methods.

3. For a stronger authentication, you can also enable extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password

4. A certificate is not required on the remote peer when you set the signature as the authentication method

132 / 184

132. Which two inspection modes can you use to configure a firewall policy on a profile-based next-generate?

1. Flow-based inspection

2. Full Content lnspection

3. Certificate Inspection

4. Proxy-based inspection

133 / 184

133. Which two statements are true about the RPF check? (Choose two.)

1. RPF is a mechanism that protects FortiGuard and your network from IP spoofing attacks

2. The RPF check is run on the first reply packet of any new session

3. The RPF check is run on the first sent packet of any new session

4. The RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.

134 / 184

134. Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question.

Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same
destination?

1. FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table

2. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes.

3. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate.

4. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route

135 / 184

135. Which two statements are true about the FGCP protocol? (Choose two.)

1. Elects the primary FortiGate device

2. Not used when FortiGate is in Transparent mode

3. Runs only over the heartbeat links

4. Is used to discover FortiGate devices in different HA groups

136 / 184

136. Examine this FortiGate configuration:

How does the FortiGate handle web proxy traffic coming from the IP address 10.2.1.200 that requires
authorization?

1. It authenticates the traffic using the authentication scheme SCHEME2.

2. It authenticates the traffic using the authentication scheme SCHEME1

3. It drops the traffic.

4. It always authorizes the traffic without requiring authentication.

137 / 184

137. Which two types of traffic are managed only by the management VDOM? (Choose two.)

1. FortiGuard web filter queries

2. Traffic shaping

3. PKI

4. DNS

138 / 184

138. Which of the following statements is true regarding SSL VPN settings for an SSL VPN portal?

1. By default, split tunneling is enabled.

2. By default, the admin GUI and SSL VPN portal use the same HTTPS port.

3. By default, FortiGate uses WINS servers to resolve names.

4. By default, the SSL VPN portal requires the installation of a client’s certificate.

139 / 184

139. Examine the network diagram shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question:

Which one of the following routes is the best candidate route for FGT1 to route traffic from the Workstation
to the Web server?

1. 172.16.0.0/16 [50/0] via 10.4.200.2, port2 [5/0]

2. 10.4.200.0/30 is directly connected, port2

3. 172.16.32.0/24 is directly connected, port1

4. 0.0.0.0/0 [20/0] via 10.4.200.2, port2

140 / 184

140. Which three statements about a flow-based antivirus profile are correct? (Choose three.)

1. IPS engine handles the process as a standalone.

2. If the virus is detected, the last packet is delivered to the client.

3. Flow-based inspection uses a hybrid of scanning modes available in proxy-based inspection.

4. Optimized performance compared to proxy-based inspection

5. FortiGate buffers the whole file but transmits to the client simultaneously.

141 / 184

141. An administrator is running the following sniffer command:
diagnose aniffer packer any "host 192.168.2.12" 5
Which three pieces of Information will be Included in me sniffer output? {Choose three.)

1. Application header

2. Interface name

3. Ethernet header

4. IP header

5. Packet payload

142 / 184

142. View the exhibit:

Which the FortiGate handle web proxy traffic rue? (Choose two.)

1. Traffic between port1-VLAN1 and port2-VLAN1 is allowed by default.

2. port1-VLAN10 and port2-VLAN10 can be assigned to different VDOM

3. Broadcast traffic received in port1-VLAN10 will not be forwarded to port2-VLAN10.

4. port-VLAN1 is the native VLAN for the port1 physical interface.

143 / 184

143. In a high availability (HA) cluster operating in active-active mode, which of the following
correctly describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a
secondary FortiGate?

1. Client > primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server.

2. Client > secondary FortiGate> web server.

3. Client> primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> web server.

4. Clinet >secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server.

144 / 184

144. Examine this output from a debug flow:

Why did the FortiGate drop the packet?

1. It matched the default implicit firewall policy.

2. It failed the RPF check

3. The next-hop IP address is unreachable.

4. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY.

145 / 184

145. FortiGate is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW) and is applying web filtering
and application control directly on the security policy.
Which two other security profiles can you apply to the security policy? (Choose two.)

1. Intrusion prevention

2. DNS filter

3. File filter

4. Antivirus scanning

146 / 184

146. In consolidated firewall policies, IPv4 and IPv6 policies are combined in a single consolidated policy.
Instead of separate policies.
Which three statements are true about consolidated IPv4 and IPv6 policy configuration? (Choose three.)

1. The policy table in the GUI can be filtered to display policies with IPv4, IPv6 or IPv4 and IPv6 sources and destinations.

2. The policy table in the GUI will be consolidated to display policies with IPv4 and IPv6 sources and destinations.

3. The IP version of the sources and destinations in a policy must match.

4. The IP version of the sources and destinations in a firewall policy must be different.

5. The Incoming Interface. Outgoing Interface. Schedule, and Service fields can be shared with both IPv4 and IPv6.

147 / 184

147. Refer to the exhibit.

Which contains a Performance SLA configuration.
An administrator has configured a performance SLA on FortiGate.
Which failed to generate any traffic.
Why is FortiGate not generating any traffic for the performance SLA?

1. You need to turn on the Enable probe packets switch.

2. There may not be a static route to route the performance SLA traffic.

3. The Ping protocol is not supported for the public servers that are configured.

4. Participants configured are not SD-WAN members.

148 / 184

148. Which three authentication timeout types are availability for selection on FortiGate? (Choose three.)

1. auth-on-demand

2. soft-timeout

3. Idle-timeout

4. new-session

5. hard-timeout

149 / 184

149. Why must you use aggressive mode when a local FortiGate IPSec gateway hosts multiple
dialup tunnels?

1. Main mode does not support XAuth for user authentication.

2. FortiGate is able to handle NATed connections only in aggressive mode.

3. FortiClient only supports aggressive mode.

4. . In aggressive mode, the remote peers are able to provide their peer IDs in the first message.

150 / 184

150. In an explicit proxy setup, where is the authentication method and database configured?

1. Authentication scheme

2. Proxy Policy

3. Authentication Rule

4. Firewall Policy

151 / 184

151. Which statement about DLP on FortiGate is true?

1. It can be applied to a firewall policy in a flow-based VDOM

2. Traffic shaping can be applied to DLP sensors.

3. It can archive files and messages.

4. Files can be sent to FortiSandbox for detecting DLP threats.

152 / 184

152. Which type of logs on FortiGate record information about traffic directly to and from the FortiGate
management IP addresses?

1. System event logs

2. Security logs

3. Local traffic logs

4. Forward traffic logs

153 / 184

153. Which statement correctly describes NetAPI polling mode for the FSSO collector agent?

1. The collector agent uses a Windows API to query DCs for user logins.

2. NetAPI polling can increase bandwidth usage in large networks.

3. The collector agent must search security event logs.

4. The NetSessionEnum function is user] to track user logouts

154 / 184

154. To complete the final step of a Security Fabric configuration, an administrator must authorize all the
devices on which device?

1. Root FortiGate

2. FortiManager

3. FortiAnalyzer

4. Downstream FortiGate

155 / 184

155. Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A shows system performance output. Exhibit B shows a FortiGate configured with the default
configuration of high memory usage thresholds.
Based on the system performance output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

1. Administrators cannot change the configuration

2. FortiGate has entered conserve mode.

3. Administrators can access FortiGate only through the console port.

4. FortiGate will start sending all files to FortiSandbox for inspection.

156 / 184

156. An administrator Is configuring an IPsec VPN between site A and site
B. The Remote Gateway setting in both sites has been configured as Static IP Address. For site
A. the local quick mode selector is 192.160.1.0/24 and the remote quick mode selector is 192.168.2.0/24.
Which subnet must the administrator configure for the local quick mode selector for site B?

1. 192.168.0.0/24

2. 192.168.3.0/24

3. 92.168.1.0/24

4. 192.168.2.0/24

157 / 184

157. The HTTP inspection process in web filtering follows a specific order when multiple features are
enabled in the web filter profile.

What order must FortiGate use when the web filter profile has features enabled, such as safe search?

1. Static URL filter, FortiGuard category filter, and advanced filters

2. DNS-based web filter and proxy-based web filter

3. Static domain filter, SSL inspection filter, and external connectors filters

4. FortiGuard category filter and rating filter

158 / 184

158. An administrator must disable RPF check to investigate an issue.
Which method is best suited to disable RPF without affecting features like antivirus and intrusion
prevention system?

1. Disable the RPF check at the FortiGate interface level for the reply check.

2. Enable asymmetric routing, so the RPF check will be bypassed.

3. Enable asymmetric routing at the interface level

4. Disable the RPF check at the FortiGate interface level for the source check.

159 / 184

159. What devices form the core of the security fabric?

1. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiManager device

2. One FortiGate device and one FortiManager device

3. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiAnalyzer device

4. One FortiGate device and one FortiAnalyzer device

160 / 184

160. Which two configuration settings are synchronized when FortiGate devices are in an active-active HA
cluster? (Choose two.)

1. FortiGate hostname

2. DNS

3. FortiGuard web filter cache

4. NTP

161 / 184

161. An administrator is configuring an Ipsec between site A and siteB. The Remotes Gateway setting in both
sites has been configured as Static IP Address. For site A, the local quick mode selector is 192.16.1.0/24 and
the remote quick mode selector is 192.16.2.0/24.
How must the administrator configure the local quick mode selector for site B?

1. 192.168.2.0/24

2. 192.168.0.0/8

3. 192.168.1.0/24

4. 192.168.3.0/24

162 / 184

162. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit contains a network interface configuration, firewall policies, and a CLI console configuration.
How will FortiGate handle user authentication for traffic that arrives on the LAN interface?

1. Users from the Sales group will be prompted for authentication and can authenticate successfully with the correct credentials.

2. Authentication is enforced at a policy level; all users will be prompted for authentication.

3. If there is a full-through policy in place, users will not be prompted for authentication.

4. Users from the HR group will be prompted for authentication and can authenticate successfully with the correct credentials

163 / 184

163. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit contains a network diagram, central SNAT policy, and IP pool configuration.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.
The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.
A firewall policy is configured to allow to destinations from LAN (port3) to WAN (port1).

Central NAT is enabled, so NAT settings from matching Central SNAT policies will be
applied.
Which IP address will be used to source NAT the traffic, if the user on Local-Client (10.0.1.10) pings the IP
address of Remote-FortiGate (10.200.3.1)?

1. 10.200.1.1

2. 10.200.1.149

3. 10.200.1.99

4. 10.200.1.49

164 / 184

164. Which Statements about virtual domains (VDOMs) arc true? (Choose two.)

1. Each VDOM has its own routing table.

2. Transparent mode and NAT/Route mode VDOMs cannot be combined on the same FortiGate.

3. Different VLAN sub-interface of the same physical interface can be assigned to different VDOMs.

4. Each VDOM can be configured with different system hostnames.

165 / 184

165. Which two actions can you perform only from the root FortiGate in a Security Fabric? (Choose two.)

1. Disable FortiAnalyzer logging for a downstream FortiGate device

2. Ban or unban compromised hosts.

3. Shut down/reboot a downstream FortiGate device.

4. Log in to a downstream FortiSwitch device.

166 / 184

166. Examine the IPS sensor and DoS policy configuration shown in the exhibit, then answer the question
below.

When detecting attacks, which anomaly, signature, or filter will FortiGate evaluate first?

1. ip_src_session

2. IMAP.Login.brute.Force

3. SMTP.Login.Brute.Force

4. Location: server Protocol: SMTP

167 / 184

167. Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP
address 10.0.1.254/24.
The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is
configured with a VIP as the destination address.
Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10/24?

1. 0.0.1.254

2. 10.200.1.10

3. 10.200.1.1

4. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24

168 / 184

168. FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories override must be configured using a specific syntax.

Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating override for the

1. example.com

2. www.example.com:443

3. www.example.com

4. www.example.com/index.html

169 / 184

169. An administrator has configured outgoing Interface any in a firewall policy.
Which statement is true about the policy list view?

1. Interface Pair view will be disabled.

2. Search option will be disabled

3. By Sequence view will be disabled.

4. Policy lookup will be disabled.

170 / 184

170. When using WPAD DNS method, which FQDN format do browsers use to query the DNS
server?

1. srv_proxy.<local-domain>/wpad.dat

2. proxy.<local-domain>.wpad

3. srv_tcp.wpad.<local-domain>

4. wpad.<local-domain>

171 / 184

171. Refer to the exhibit, which contains a static route configuration

An administrator created a static route for Amazon Web Services.
What CLI command must the administrator use to view the route?

1. get router info routing-table all

2. get internet service route list

3. diagnose firewall proute list

4. get router info routing-table datab

172 / 184

172. If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the
certificate issued to?

1. A root CA

2. A person

3. A CRL

4. A subordinate CA

173 / 184

173. Refer to the exhibit showing a debug flow output.

Which two statements about the debug flow output are correct? (Choose two.)

1. The default route is required to receive a reply.

2. The debug flow is of ICMP traffic.

3. A new traffic session is created

4. A firewall policy allowed the connection.

174 / 184

174. During the digital verification process, comparing the original and fresh hash results satisfies
which security requirement?

1. Authentication.

2. Data integrity.

3. Non-repudiation.

4. Signature verification.

175 / 184

175. Which of the following statements correctly describes FortiGates route lookup behavior when
searching for a suitable gateway? (Choose two)

1. Lookup is done on the trust reply packet from the responder

2. Lookup is done on the last packet sent from the responder

3. Lookup is done on the first packet from the session originator

4. Lookup is done on every packet, regardless of direction

176 / 184

176. Which CLI command will display sessions both from client to the proxy and from the proxy to the
servers?

1. diagnose wad session list | grep hook-pre&&hook-out

2. diagnose wad session list | grep hook=pre&&hook=out

3. diagnose wad session list | grep "hook=pre"&"hook=out"

4. diagnose wad session list

177 / 184

177. Refer to the exhibit, which contains a redious server configuration.

An administration added a configuration for a new RADIUS server.
While configuring, the administrator selected the include eery user group option.

What will be the impact of include in every user group option in a RADIUS configuration?

1. This option places the RADIUS server and all users who can authenticate against that server, into every FortiGate user.

2. This option places all FortiGate users and groups required to authenticate into the RADIUS server, which in this case is FortiAuthenticator.

3. This option places all user every RADIUS user group including groups that are used for the LDAP server on FortiGate.

4. This option places the RADIUS server, and all user who can authenticate against that server into RADIUS group.

178 / 184

178. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit displays the output of the CLI command: diagnose sys ha dump-by vcluster.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

1. FortiGate SN FGVM010000065036 HA uptime has been reset.

2. FortiGate devices are not in sync because one device is down.

3. FortiGate SN FGVM010000064692 has the higher HA priority.

4. FortiGate SN FGVM010000064692 is the primary because of higher HA uptime

179 / 184

179. Refer to the exhibit.

The global settings on a FortiGate device must be changed to align with company security policies.
What does the Administrator account need to access the FortiGate global settings?
A. Change password

1. Enable two-factor authentication

2. Change Administrator profile

3. Change password

4. Enable restrict access to trusted hosts

180 / 184

180. Refer to the exhibit.

Which contains a session diagnostic output.
Which statement is true about the session diagnostic output?

1. The session is in FTN_WAIT state.

2. The session is in SYN_SEXT state.

3. The session is in FIN_ACK state.

4. The session is in ESTABLISHED state.

181 / 184

181. An administrator has configured a strict RPF check on FortiGate.
Which statement is true about the strict RPF check?

1. Strict RPF checks only for the existence of at cast one active route back to the source using the incoming interface.

2. Strict RPF allows packets back to sources with all active routes.

3. Strict RPF checks the best route back to the source using the incoming interface

4. The strict RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.

182 / 184

182. If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was
the certificate issued to?

1. A subordinate CA

2. A root CA

3. A person

4. A CRL

183 / 184

183. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a web browser to trust a web server certificate
signed by a third-party CA?

1. The private key of the CA certificate that signed the browser certificate must be installed on the browser.

2. The public key of the web server certificate must be installed on the browser.

3. The CA certificate that signed the web-server certificate must be installed on the browser.

4. The web-server certificate must be installed on the browser.

184 / 184

184. Refer to the exhibit

Given the routing database shown in the exhibit, which two statements are choose.

1. The port1 and port2 default routes are act1ve in the routing table

2. The port3 default route has the lowest metric

3. There will be eight routes active in the routing table

4. The port3 default route has the highest distance

Your score is

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

0 votes, 0 avg

Created by

Rabiul Islam

CCNA Question Part-1

1 / 100

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

1. 10.10.10.0/28

2. 10.10.13.144/28

3. 10.10.13.208/29

4. 10.10.13.0/25

Host A address fall within the address range. However, if more than one route to the same subnet exist (router
will use the longest stick match, which match more specific route to the subnet). If there are route
10.10.13.192/26 and 10.10.13.208/29, the router will forward the packet to /29 rather than /28.

2 / 100

2. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network
device? (Choose two)

1. Enable NTP authentication.

2. Set the NTP server private key.

3. Verify the time zone.

4. Disable NTP broadcasts

5. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.

To configure authentication, perform this task in privileged mode:
Step 1: Configure an authentication key pair for NTP and specify whether the key will be trusted or untrusted.
Step 2: Set the IP address of the NTP server and the public key.
Step 3: Enable NTP client mode.
Step 4: Enable NTP authentication.
Step 5: Verify the NTP configuration.

3 / 100

3. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

1. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

2. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch.

3. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted.

4. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

Dynamic ARP inspection is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking

4 / 100

4. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

1. faster changes with more reliable results

2. increased network security

3. reduced hardware footprint

4. reduced operational costs

5. fewer network failures

5 / 100

5. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC.
Which action is taken by the phone?

1. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

2. It drops the traffic.

3. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.

4. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.

Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged,
regardless of the trust state of the access port on the phone.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/vlan/
configuration_guide/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg_chapter_0110.pdf

6 / 100

6. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their
management of networks?

1. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization.

2. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

3. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

4. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode.

7 / 100

7. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor
and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the
routing table?

1. 110

2. 90

3. 20

4. 115

The Administrative distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so EIGRP route will be chosen
to install into the routing table.

8 / 100

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

1. default

2. adminadmin123

3. esting1234

4. cisco123

If neither the enable password command nor the enable secret command is configured, and if there is a line
password configured for the console, the console line password serves as the enable password for all VTY
sessions -> The "enable secret" will be used first if available, then "enable password" and line password.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/optical/cpt/r9_3/configuration/guide/cpt93_configuration/
cpt93_configuration_chapter_0100

9 / 100

9. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

1. 192.0.0.0/8

2. 172.9.0.0/16

3. 209.165.201.0/24

4. 172.28.0.0/16

This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are
listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Only the
network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

10 / 100

10. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is
in the proper mode?

1. Exchange

2. Init

3. 2-way

4. Full

11 / 100

11. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific
networks?

1. Flex ACL

2. RADIUS

3. CPU ACL

4. TACACS

Whenever you want to control which devices can talk to the main CPU, a CPU ACL is used.
Note: CPU ACLs only filter traffic towards the CPU, and not any traffic exiting or generated by the CPU.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/71978-acl-wlc.html

12 / 100

12. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router
use to select the best path?

1. administrative distance

2. cost

3. as-path

4. metric

If a router learns two different paths for the same network from the same routing protocol, it has to decide
which route is better and will be placed in the routing table. Metric is the measure used to decide which route is
better (lower number is better). Each routing protocol uses its own metric.
For example, RIP uses hop counts as a metric, while OSPF uses cost.

13 / 100

13. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

1. It supports protocol discovery.

2. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

3. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.

4. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.

5. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.

Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets
selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network.
When a packet arrives, the following events occur:
1. The average queue size is calculated.
2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.
3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for
the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of
traffic.
4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped. WRED reduces the
chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the
output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue
from filling up). By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids
dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED
allows the transmission line to be used
fully at all times.
WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are
less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the
higher the probability that the packet will be delivered (-> answer A is correct).

14 / 100

14. Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

1. is a network IP address.

2. The router does not support/28 mask.

3. It belongs to a private IP address range.

4. It is a broadcast IP address.

15 / 100

15. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The
webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of
security program is in place?

1. brute force attack

2. Physical access control

3. user awareness

4. Social engineering attack

16 / 100

16. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

1. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

2. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

3. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

4. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

The trunk still forms with mismatched native VLANs and the traffic can actually flow between mismatched
switches. But it is absolutely necessary that the native VLANs on both ends of a trunk link match; otherwise a
native VLAN mismatch occurs, causing the two VLANs to effectively merge.
For example with the above configuration, SW1 would send untagged frames for VLAN 999. SW2 receives
them but would think they are for VLAN 99 so we can say these two VLANs are merged.

17 / 100

17. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.
Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

1. runts

2. CRC

3. frame

4. giants

5. input errors

18 / 100

18. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

1. Option C

2. Option B

3. Option A

4. Option D

JSON data is written as name/value pairs.
A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value:
“name”:”Mark”
JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null.
For example:
{
“name”:”John”,
“age”:30,
“cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ]
}
JSON can have empty object like “taskId”:{}

19 / 100

19. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask
combination meets this criteria?

1. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248

2. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

3. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248

4. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252

A /30 subnet means subnet mask of 255.255.255.252. But 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 is a broadcast IP address;
only 209.165.201.2/30 is the usable IP address

20 / 100

20. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

1. XML

2. JSON

3. YAML

4. EBCDIC

5. SGML

The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) REST API is a programmatic interface that uses REST
architecture. The API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages that contain
JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/5_x/rest_api_config/
b_Cisco_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x/
b_Cisco_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x_chapter_010.pdf

21 / 100

21. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

1. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

2. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database

3. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

4. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password.

AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization and Accounting.
+ Authentication: Specify who you are (usually via login username & password)
+ Authorization: Specify what actions you can do, what resource you can access
+ Accounting: Monitor what you do, how long you do it (can be used for billing and auditing)
An example of AAA is shown below:
+ Authentication: "I am a normal user. My username/password is user_tom/learnforever"
+ Authorization: "user_tom can access LearnCCNA server via HTTP and FTP"
+ Accounting: "user_tom accessed LearnCCNA server for 2 hours". This user only uses "show" commands.

22 / 100

22. Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN
2.

What causes this behavior?

1. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

2. native VLAN mismatches

3. trunk mode mismatches

4. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so
although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

23 / 100

23. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

1. northbound

2. southbound

3. overlay

4. underlay

24 / 100

24. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.)

1. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.

2. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

3. It requires the use of ARP.

4. It routes over links rather than over networks.

25 / 100

25. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the
output for switch 1.

Which error must be corrected?

1. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk.

2. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN.

3. There is a native VLAN mismatch.

4. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

From the output we see the native VLAN of Switch1 on Gi0/1 interface is VLAN 1 while that of Switch2 is VLAN
99 so there would be a native VLAN mismatch

26 / 100

26. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is
running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types
show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

1. broadcast

2. point-to-point

3. port-to-multipoint

4. nonbroadcast

The default OSPF network type for HDLC and PPP on Serial link is point-to-point (while the default OSPF
network type for Ethernet link is Broadcast).

27 / 100

27. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lot interface of the Atlanta router
using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path.

Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the
Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

1. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

2. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

3. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5

4. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5

5. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

Floating static routes are static routes that have an administrative distance greater than the administrative
distance (AD) of another static route or dynamic routes. By default a static route has an AD of 1 then floating
static route must have the AD greater than 1. Floating static route has a manually configured administrative
distance greater than that of the primary route and therefore would not be in the routing table until the primary
route fails.

28 / 100

28. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

1. 172.16.15.10

2. 10.10.10.20

3. 10.10.1.10

4. 192.168.0.1

OSPF uses the following criteria to select the router ID:
1. Manual configuration of the router ID (via the "router-id x.x.x.x" command under OSPF router configuration
mode).
2. Highest IP address on a loopback interface.
3. Highest IP address on a non-loopback and active (no shutdown) interface

29 / 100

29. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?

1. username Cisco password encrypt

2. enable secret

3. service password-encryption

4. enable password