Dumps 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 73 Created by Md Hedaet Shake CCNA 200-301 1 / 10 1. Which device can break Collision domain? 1. Switch 2. Firewall 3. Router 4. Hub 2 / 10 2. What two devices can be connected to a router WAN serial interface that can provide clocking? (Choose two.) 1. hub 2. modem 3. CSU/DSU 4. switch 3 / 10 3. What command should you use to quickly view the HSRP state of the switch for all HSRP groups of which the switch is a member? 1. switch# show hsrp 2. switch# show standby 3. switch# show ip interface brief 4. switch# show standby brief 4 / 10 4. Which of the following cables would be used to connect a router to a switch? 1. rollover 2. straight-through 3. crossover 5 / 10 5. Which statement is NOT true regarding Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)? 1. ICMP can identify network problems. 2. ICMP is documented in RFC 792. 3. An ICMP echo-request message is generated by the ping command. 4. ICMP provides reliable transmission of data in an Internet Protocol (IP) environment. 6 / 10 6. Which type of Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is used to work as a trunk between two switches? 1. RJ-11 straight-through 2. RJ-45 crossover 3. RJ-41 crossover 4. RJ-45 straight-through 7 / 10 7. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is used to view the number of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received? 1. show eigrp neighbors 2. show ip eigrp traffic 3. show ip eigrp topology 4. show ip route 5. show ip eigrp interfaces 6. show ip eigrp packets 8 / 10 8. Which of the following are port roles in the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)? (Choose three.) 1. Routing 2. Backup 3. Discarding 4. Designated 5. Alternate 6. Blocking 7. Listening 9 / 10 9. What is the valid host address range for the subnet 172.25.4.0 /23? 1. 172.25.4.1 to 172.25.5.254 2. 172.25.4.21 to 172.25.5.56 3. 172.25.4.35 to 172.25.5.64 4. 172.25.4.10 to 172.25.5.210 10 / 10 10. What command was used to generate the output shown below? 1. show interface status 2. show ip interface brief 3. show interface 4. show ip interface Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 Created by Md Hedaet Shake CCNP 350-401 ENCOR 1 / 1 1. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is used to view the number of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received? 1. show ip eigrp traffic 2. show ip route 3. show ip eigrp packets 4. show ip eigrp interfaces 5. show ip eigrp topology 6. show eigrp neighbors Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 Created by Md Hedaet Shake CCNP 300-410 ENARSI 1 / 1 1. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is used to view the number of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received? 1. show ip eigrp topology 2. show ip route 3. show ip eigrp traffic 4. show eigrp neighbors 5. show ip eigrp interfaces 6. show ip eigrp packets Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 7 Created by Md Hedaet Shake NSE 4 1 / 30 1. Which of the following features is supported by web filter in flow-based inspection mode with NGFW mode set to profile-based? 1. Static URL 2. Search engines 3. Rating option 4. FortiGuard Quotas 2 / 30 2. Which of the following statements about NTLM authentication are correct? (Choose two.) 1. It is useful when users log in to DCs that are not monitored by a collector agent. 2. NTLM-enabled web browsers are required. 3. Multi-domain environments require DC agents on every domain controller. 4. . It takes over as the primary authentication method when configured alongside FSSO. 3 / 30 3. Which Statements about virtual domains (VDOMs) arc true? (Choose two.) 1. Each VDOM has its own routing table. 2. Different VLAN sub-interface of the same physical interface can be assigned to different VDOMs. 3. Each VDOM can be configured with different system hostnames. 4. Transparent mode and NAT/Route mode VDOMs cannot be combined on the same FortiGate. 4 / 30 4. If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to? 1. A CRL 2. A person 3. A root CA 4. A subordinate CA 5 / 30 5. On a FortiGate with a hard disk, how can you upload logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager? (Choose two.) 1. real time 2. store-and-upload 3. on-demand 4. hourly 6 / 30 6. Which of the following services can be inspected by the DLP profile? (Choose three.) 1. IMAP 2. CIFS 3. FTP 4. HTTP-POST 5. NFS 7 / 30 7. Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question. Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same destination? 1. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate. 2. . FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table 3. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes. 4. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route 8 / 30 8. When using WPAD DNS method, which FQDN format do browsers use to query the DNS server? 1. proxy.<local-domain>.wpad 2. srv_proxy.<local-domain>/wpad.dat 3. srv_tcp.wpad.<local-domain> 4. wpad.<local-domain> 9 / 30 9. If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does FortiGate take? 1. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file. 2. It archives the data for that IP address. 3. It notifies the administrator by sending an email. 4. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval. 10 / 30 10. What files are sent to FortiSandbox for inspection in flow-based inspection mode? 1. . All suspicious files that do not have their hash value in the FortiGuard antivirus signature database. 2. All suspicious files that are allowed to be submitted to FortiSandbox in the antivirus profile. 3. All suspicious files that match patterns defined in the antivirus profile. 4. All suspicious files that are above the defined oversize limit value in the protocol options. 11 / 30 11. Which of the following statements about converse mode are true? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGate stops sending files to FortiSandbox for inspection. 2. Administrators can access the FortiGate only through the console port. 3. Administrators cannot change the configuration. 4. FortiGate stops doing RPF checks over incoming packets. 12 / 30 12. Why must you use aggressive mode when a local FortiGate IPSec gateway hosts multiple dialup tunnels? 1. Main mode does not support XAuth for user authentication. 2. . In aggressive mode, the remote peers are able to provide their peer IDs in the first message. 3. FortiGate is able to handle NATed connections only in aggressive mode. 4. FortiClient only supports aggressive mode. 13 / 30 13. In a high availability (HA) cluster operating in active-active mode, which of the following correctly describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a secondary FortiGate? 1. Client > primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server. 2. Clinet >secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server. 3. Client> primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> web server. 4. Client > secondary FortiGate> web server. 14 / 30 14. Examine this output from a debug flow: Why did the FortiGate drop the packet? 1. The next-hop IP address is unreachable. 2. . It failed the RPF check. 3. It matched the default implicit firewall policy. 4. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY. 15 / 30 15. What criteria does FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose two.) 1. . Lowest to highest policy ID number. 2. Incoming and outgoing interfaces. 3. Services defined in the firewall policy. 4. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy. 16 / 30 16. How can you block or allow to Twitter using a firewall policy? 1. Configure the Source field as Internet Service objects for Twitter. 2. Configure the Destination field as Internet Service objects for Twitter. 3. Configure the Service field as Internet Service objects for Twitter. 4. . Configure the Action field as Learn and select Twitter. 17 / 30 17. An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices. Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true? 1. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed. 2. A phase 2 configuration is not required. 3. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list. 4. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology. 18 / 30 18. An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address. What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.) 1. Captive portal is enabled in the interface. 2. The interface is a member of a zone. 3. The operation mode is transparent. 4. The interface has been configured for one-arm sniffer. 5. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair. 19 / 30 19. Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal cost multipath (ECMP) routing? (Choose two.) 1. Cost 2. Priority 3. Distance 4. Metric 20 / 30 20. During the digital verification process, comparing the original and fresh hash results satisfies which security requirement? 1. Authentication. 2. Non-repudiation. 3. Signature verification. 4. Data integrity. 21 / 30 21. An administrator needs to strengthen the security for SSL VPN access. Which of the following statements are best practices to do so? (Choose three.) 1. Configure two-factor authentication using security certificates. 2. Configure split tunneling for content inspection. 3. . Configure SSL offloading to a content processor (FortiASIC). 4. Configure a client integrity check (host-check). 5. Configure host restrictions by IP or MAC address. 22 / 30 22. Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.) 1. Include the group of guest users in a policy. 2. . Extend timeout timers. 3. Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers. 4. Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required ports. 23 / 30 23. company needs to provide SSL VPN access to two user groups. The company also needs to display different welcome messages on the SSL VPN login screen for both user groups. What is required in the SSL VPN configuration to meet these requirements? 1. Two separate SSL VPNs in different interfaces mapping the same ssl.root. 2. Different SSL VPN realms for each group. 3. Different virtual SSL VPN IP addresses for each group. 4. Two firewall policies with different captive portals. 24 / 30 24. Examine the routing database shown in the exhibit, and then answer the following question: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.) 1. The port3 default route has the lowest metric. 2. The port3 default route has the highest distance. 3. There will be eight routes active in the routing table. 4. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table. 25 / 30 25. Which configuration objects can be selected for the Source field of a firewall policy? (Choose two.) 1. User or user group 2. FQDN address 3. Firewall service 4. IP Pool 26 / 30 26. What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy, in NGFW policy-based mode? 1. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only 2. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only. 3. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only. 4. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only. 27 / 30 27. Which statement is true regarding the policy ID number of a firewall policy? 1. Defines the order in which rules are processed. 2. Changes when firewall policies are reordered. 3. Represents the number of objects used in the firewall policy. 4. Required to modify a firewall policy using the CLI. 28 / 30 28. Which statement about DLP on FortiGate is true? 1. It can archive files and messages. 2. It can be applied to a firewall policy in a flow-based VDOM 3. Traffic shaping can be applied to DLP sensors. 4. Files can be sent to FortiSandbox for detecting DLP threats. 29 / 30 29. How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user? 1. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials. 2. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication. 3. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the LDAP server. 4. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials. 30 / 30 30. Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.) 1. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2. 2. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes. 3. . It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes. 4. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are defined in advance. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 3 Created by Md Hedaet Shake NSE4 Valid Dumps 1 / 184 1. Examine the following web filtering log. Which statement about the log message is true? 1. The usage quota for the IP address 10.0.1.10 has expired 2. The name of the applied web filter profile is default 3. The action for the category Games is set to block 4. The web site miniclip.com matches a static URL filter whose action is set to Warning 2 / 184 2. What is the primary FortiGate election process when the HA override setting is disabled? 1. Connected monitored ports > System uptime > Priority > FortiGate Serial number 2. Connected monitored ports > Priority > HA uptime > FortiGate Serial number 3. Connected monitored ports > HA uptime > Priority > FortiGate Serial number 4. Connected monitored ports > Priority > System uptime > FortiGate Serial number 3 / 184 3. Refer to the exhibits to view the firewall policy (Exhibit A) and the antivirus profile (Exhibit B). Which statement is correct if a user is unable to receive a block replacement message when downloading an infected file for the first time? 1. The firewall policy performs the full content inspection on the file. 2. The flow-based inspection is used, which resets the last packet to the user. 3. The volume of traffic being inspected is too high for this model of FortiGate. 4. The intrusion prevention security profile needs to be enabled when using flow-based inspection mode 4 / 184 4. Refer to the exhibit. In the network shown in the exhibit, the web client cannot connect to the HTTP web server. The administrator runs the FortiGate built-in sniffer and gets the output as shown in the exhibit. What should the administrator do next to troubleshoot the problem? 1. Execute a debug flow. 2. Run a sniffer on the web server. 3. Execute another sniffer in the FortiGate, this time with the filter “host 10.0.1.10” 4. Capture the traffic using an external sniffer connected to port1. 5 / 184 5. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains a network interface configuration, firewall policies, and a CLI console configuration. How will FortiGate handle user authentication for traffic that arrives on the LAN interface? 1. Users from the Sales group will be prompted for authentication and can authenticate successfully with the correct credentials. 2. If there is a full-through policy in place, users will not be prompted for authentication. 3. Authentication is enforced at a policy level; all users will be prompted for authentication. 4. Users from the HR group will be prompted for authentication and can authenticate successfully with the correct credentials 6 / 184 6. Which of the following statements about central NAT are true? (Choose two.) 1. Destination NAT, using central NAT, requires a VIP object as the destination address in a firewall. 2. Source NAT, using central NAT, requires at least one central SNAT policy. 3. Central NAT can be enabled or disabled from the CLI only. 4. IP tool references must be removed from existing firewall policies before enabling central NAT. 7 / 184 7. An administrator is running the following sniffer command: diagnose aniffer packer any "host 192.168.2.12" 5 Which three pieces of Information will be Included in me sniffer output? {Choose three.) 1. Packet payload 2. IP header 3. Application header 4. Ethernet header 5. Interface name 8 / 184 8. Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal cost multipath (ECMP) routing? (Choose two.) 1. Cost 2. Metric 3. Priority 4. Distance 9 / 184 9. Refer to the exhibit. Review the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) profile signature settings. Which statement is correct in adding the FTP.Login.Failed signature to the IPS sensor profile? 1. The signature setting uses a custom rating threshold. 2. Traffic matching the signature will be allowed and logged. 3. The signature setting includes a group of other signatures 4. Traffic matching the signature will be silently dropped and logged. 10 / 184 10. Which two statements are true about the FGCP protocol? (Choose two.) 1. Is used to discover FortiGate devices in different HA groups 2. Not used when FortiGate is in Transparent mode 3. Elects the primary FortiGate device 4. Runs only over the heartbeat links 11 / 184 11. Refer to the exhibit. The Root and To_Internet VDOMs are configured in NAT mode. The DMZ and Local VDOMs are configured in transparent mode. The Root VDOM is the management VDOM. The To_Internet VDOM allows LAN users to access internet. The To_lnternet VDOM is the only VDOM with internet access and is directly connected to ISP modem. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 1. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and DMZ VDOMs. 2. A static route is required on the To_Internet VDOM to allow LAN users to access the internet 3. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and Root VDOMs 4. Inter-VDOM links are not required between the Root and To_Internet VDOMs because the Root VDOM is used only as a management VDOM 12 / 184 12. Which statement regarding the firewall policy authentication timeout is true? 1. It is an idle timeout. The FortiGate considers a user to be “idle” if it does not see any packets coming from the user’s source MAC. 2. It is an idle timeout. The FortiGate considers a user to be “idle” if it does not see any packets coming from the user’s source IP. 3. It is a hard timeout. The FortiGate removes the temporary policy for a user’s source IP address after this timer has expired. 4. It is a hard timeout. The FortiGate removes the temporary policy for a user’s source MAC address after this timer has expired. 13 / 184 13. In an explicit proxy setup, where is the authentication method and database configured? 1. Authentication scheme 2. Authentication Rule 3. Proxy Policy 4. Firewall Policy 14 / 184 14. Which of the following statements about converse mode are true? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGate stops sending files to FortiSandbox for inspection. 2. Administrators cannot change the configuration. 3. Administrators can access the FortiGate only through the console port. 4. FortiGate stops doing RPF checks over incoming packets. 15 / 184 15. What types of traffic and attacks can be blocked by a web application firewall (WAF) profile? (Choose three.) 1. Traffic to inappropriate web sites 2. Server information disclosure attacks 3. Credit card data leaks 4. SQL injection attacks 5. Traffic to botnetservers 16 / 184 16. Refer to the exhibit. According to the certificate values shown in the exhibit, which type of entity was the certificate issued to? 1. A root CA 2. A bridge CA 3. A user 4. A subordinate 17 / 184 17. You have enabled logging on your FortiGate device for Event logs and all Security logs, and you have set up logging to use the FortiGate local disk. What is the default behavior when the local disk is full? 1. Logs are overwritten and the first warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the threshold of 75%. 2. Logs are overwritten and the only warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the threshold of 95%. 3. No new log is recorded after the warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the threshold of 95%. 4. No new log is recorded until you manually clear logs from the local disk. 18 / 184 18. Which two statements are correct about a software switch on FortiGate? 1. It can be configured only when FortlGate is operating in NAT mode. 2. Can act as a Layer 2 switch as well as a Layer 3 router. 3. It can group only physical Interfaces. 4. All interfaces in the software switch share the same IP address. 19 / 184 19. Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate HA cluster virtual IP addresses? (Choose two.) 1. Virtual IP addresses are used to distinguish between cluster members. 2. The primary device in the cluster is always assigned IP address 169.254.0.1. 3. A change in the virtual IP address happens when a FortiGate device joins or leaves the cluster. 4. Heartbeat interfaces have virtual IP addresses that are manually assigned. 20 / 184 20. Which three options are the remote log storage options you can configure on FortiGate? (Choose three.) 1. FortiCache 2. FortiSIEM 3. FortiAnalyzer 4. FortiCloud 5. FortiSandbox 21 / 184 21. Refer to the exhibit. Given the interfaces shown in the exhibit. which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 1. D. port1-vlan and port2-vlan1 can be assigned in the same VDOM or to different VDOMs 2. port1 is a native VLAN. 3. Traffic between port2 and port2-vlan1 is allowed by default. 4. port1-vlan10 and port2-vlan10 are part of the same broadcast domain 22 / 184 22. How does FortiGate act when using SSL VPN in web mode? 1. FortiGate acts as an FDS server. 2. FortiGate acts as router. 3. FortiGate acts as DNS server 4. FortiGate acts as an HTTP reverse proxy. 23 / 184 23. Refer to the exhibit, which contains a redious server configuration. An administration added a configuration for a new RADIUS server. While configuring, the administrator selected the include eery user group option. What will be the impact of include in every user group option in a RADIUS configuration? 1. This option places the RADIUS server and all users who can authenticate against that server, into every FortiGate user. 2. This option places all user every RADIUS user group including groups that are used for the LDAP server on FortiGate. 3. This option places the RADIUS server, and all user who can authenticate against that server into RADIUS group. 4. This option places all FortiGate users and groups required to authenticate into the RADIUS server, which in this case is FortiAuthenticator. 24 / 184 24. Why does FortiGate keep TCP sessions in the session table for some seconds even after both sides (client and server) have terminated the session? 1. To remove the NAT operation 2. To finish any inspection operations 3. To generate logs 4. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets 25 / 184 25. Refer to the exhibit showing a debug flow output. Which two statements about the debug flow output are correct? (Choose two.) 1. The default route is required to receive a reply. 2. The debug flow is of ICMP traffic. 3. A firewall policy allowed the connection. 4. A new traffic session is created 26 / 184 26. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains a network diagram, firewall policies, and a firewall address object configuration. An administrator created a Deny policy with default settings to deny Webserver access for Remote-user2. Remote-user2 is still able to access Webserver. Which two changes can the administrator make to deny Webserver access for Remote-User2? (Choose two.) 1. Enable match vip in the Deny policy. 2. Set the Destination address as Deny_IP in the Allow-access policy 3. Disable match-vip in the Deny policy. 4. Set the Destination address as Web_server in the Deny policy 27 / 184 27. Which three statements are true regarding session-based authentication? (Choose three.) 1. It is not recommended if multiple users are behind the source NAT 2. It requires more resources. 3. IP sessions from the same source IP address are treated as a single user 4. It can differentiate among multiple clients behind the same source IP address. 5. HTTP sessions are treated as a single user. 28 / 184 28. When using WPAD DNS method, which FQDN format do browsers use to query the DNS server? 1. srv_proxy.<local-domain>/wpad.dat 2. wpad.<local-domain> 3. srv_tcp.wpad.<local-domain> 4. proxy.<local-domain>.wpad 29 / 184 29. Examine the IPS sensor configuration shown in the exhibit, and then answer the question below. An administrator has configured the WINDOWS_SERVERS IPS sensor in an attempt to determine whether the influx of HTTPS traffic is an attack attempt or not. After applying the IPS sensor, FortiGate is still not generating any IPS logs for the HTTPS traffic. What is a possible reason for this? 1. A DoS policy should be used, instead of an IPS sensor. 2. The firewall policy is not using a full SSL inspection profile. 3. A DoS policy should be used, instead of an IPS sensor 4. The IPS filter is missing the Protocol: HTTPS option. 5. The HTTPS signatures have not been added to the sensor 30 / 184 30. What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy, in NGFW policy-based mode? 1. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only. 2. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only. 3. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only. 4. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only 31 / 184 31. What inspection mode does FortiGate use if it is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW)? 1. Full Content inspection 2. Certificate inspection 3. Proxy-based inspection 4. Flow-based inspection 32 / 184 32. An administrator has configured a strict RPF check on FortiGate. Which statement is true about the strict RPF check? 1. The strict RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session. 2. Strict RPF checks only for the existence of at cast one active route back to the source using the incoming interface. 3. Strict RPF checks the best route back to the source using the incoming interface 4. Strict RPF allows packets back to sources with all active routes. 33 / 184 33. Which of the following statements correctly describes FortiGates route lookup behavior when searching for a suitable gateway? (Choose two) 1. Lookup is done on the first packet from the session originator 2. Lookup is done on the last packet sent from the responder 3. Lookup is done on the trust reply packet from the responder 4. Lookup is done on every packet, regardless of direction 34 / 184 34. 61.Which two attributes are required on a certificate so it can be used as a CA certificate on SSL Inspection? (Choose two.) 1. The issuer must be a public CA. 2. The keyUsage extension must be set to keyCertSign. 3. The common name on the subject field must use a wildcard name 4. The CA extension must be set to TRUE. 35 / 184 35. D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D What is the effect of enabling auto-negotiate on the phase 2 configuration of an IPsec tunnel? 1. FortiGate automatically negotiates a new security association after the existing security association expires. 2. FortiGate automatically negotiates different local and remote addresses with the remote peer. 3. FortiGate automatically brings up the IPsec tunnel and keeps it up, regardless of activity on the IPsec tunnel. 4. FortiGate automatically negotiates different encryption and authentication algorithms with the remote peer. 36 / 184 36. Refer to the exhibit Given the routing database shown in the exhibit, which two statements are choose. 1. The port3 default route has the highest distance 2. There will be eight routes active in the routing table 3. The port1 and port2 default routes are act1ve in the routing table 4. The port3 default route has the lowest metric 37 / 184 37. Which Statements about virtual domains (VDOMs) arc true? (Choose two.) 1. Each VDOM can be configured with different system hostnames. 2. Different VLAN sub-interface of the same physical interface can be assigned to different VDOMs. 3. Transparent mode and NAT/Route mode VDOMs cannot be combined on the same FortiGate. 4. Each VDOM has its own routing table. 38 / 184 38. An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address. What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.) 1. The interface has been configured for one-arm sniffer 2. The interface is a member of a zone 3. The operation mode is transparent 4. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair. 5. Captive portal is enabled in the interface. 39 / 184 39. Refer to the web filter raw logs. Based on the raw logs shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct? 1. Access to the social networking web filter category was explicitly blocked to all users 2. The action on firewall policy ID 1 is set to warning 3. The name of the firewall policy is all_users_web. 4. Social networking web filter category is configured with the action set to authenticate 40 / 184 40. Given the security fabric topology shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 1. Device detection is disabled on all FortiGate devices 2. There are 19 security recommendations for the security fabric. 3. There are five devices that are part of the security fabric. 4. This security fabric topology is a logical topology view. 41 / 184 41. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the raw log, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) 1. Traffic is blocked because Action is set to DENY in the firewall policy 2. Log severity is set to error on FortiGate. 3. Traffic belongs to the root VDOM. 4. This is a security log. 42 / 184 42. Refer to the exhibit. Which contains a session diagnostic output. Which statement is true about the session diagnostic output? 1. The session is in ESTABLISHED state. 2. The session is in SYN_SEXT state. 3. The session is in FIN_ACK state. 4. The session is in FTN_WAIT state. 43 / 184 43. Which of statement is true about SSL VPN web mode? 1. It supports a limited number of protocols. 2. The tunnel is up while the client is connected. 3. It assigns a virtual IP address to the client 4. The external network application sends data through the VPN. 44 / 184 44. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a web browser to trust a web server certificate signed by a third-party CA? 1. The CA certificate that signed the web-server certificate must be installed on the browser. 2. The web-server certificate must be installed on the browser. 3. The private key of the CA certificate that signed the browser certificate must be installed on the browser. 4. The public key of the web server certificate must be installed on the browser. 45 / 184 45. company needs to provide SSL VPN access to two user groups. The company also needs to display different welcome messages on the SSL VPN login screen for both user groups. What is required in the SSL VPN configuration to meet these requirements? 1. Different SSL VPN realms for each group. 2. Two firewall policies with different captive portals. 3. Two separate SSL VPNs in different interfaces mapping the same ssl.root. 4. Different virtual SSL VPN IP addresses for each group. 46 / 184 46. Which of the following statements about backing up logs from the CLI and downloading logs from the GUI are true? (Choose two.) 1. Log backups from the CLI cannot be restored to another FortiGate. 2. Log downloads from the GUI are stored as LZ4 compressed files. 3. Log downloads from the GUI are limited to the current filter view 4. Log backups from the CLI can be configured to upload to FTP as a scheduled time 47 / 184 47. An administrator has configured outgoing Interface any in a firewall policy. Which statement is true about the policy list view? 1. By Sequence view will be disabled. 2. Search option will be disabled 3. Policy lookup will be disabled. 4. Interface Pair view will be disabled. 48 / 184 48. The exhibit contains the configuration for an SD-WAN Performance SLA, as well as the output of diagnose sys virtual-wan-link health-check. Which interface will be selected as an outgoing interface? 1. port2 2. port3 3. port4 4. port1 49 / 184 49. Which two configuration settings are synchronized when FortiGate devices are in an active-active HA cluster? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGuard web filter cache 2. NTP 3. FortiGate hostname 4. DNS 50 / 184 50. Which certificate value can FortiGate use to determine the relationship between the issuer and the certificate? 1. Subject Key Identifier value 2. SMMIE Capabilities value 3. Subject Alternative Name value 4. Subject value 51 / 184 51. An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices. Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true? 1. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed. 2. A phase 2 configuration is not required. 3. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology. 4. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list. 52 / 184 52. FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories override must be configured using a specific syntax. Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating override for the 1. www.example.com/index.html 2. www.example.com:443 3. example.com 4. www.example.com 53 / 184 53. A FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) sub interfaces added to the physical interface. Which statements about the VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets. 1. The two VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet. 2. The two VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets. 3. The two VLAN sub interfaces must have different VLAN IDs. 4. The two VLAN sub interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different VDOMs. 54 / 184 54. Which of the following are purposes of NAT traversal in IPsec? (Choose two.) 1. To dynamically change phase 1 negotiation mode aggressive mode. 2. To force a new DH exchange with each phase 2 rekey. 3. To delete intermediary NAT devices in the tunnel path. 4. To encapsulation ESP packets in UDP packets using port 4500. 55 / 184 55. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 status is up. but phase 2 fails to come up. Based on the phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit, what configuration change will bring phase 2 up? 1. On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256 2. On Remote-FortiGate, set Seconds to 43200. 3. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Diffie-Hellman Group 2 4. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Auto-negotiate 56 / 184 56. Which two statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.) 1. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned. 2. In flow-based inspection mode. FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously transmits it to the client. 3. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning, before sending it to the client. 4. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned. 57 / 184 57. Which two statements are correct about NGFW Policy-based mode? (Choose two) 1. NGFW policy-based mode does not require the use of central source NAT 2. NGFW policy-based mode supports creating applications and webfilter 3. NGFN policy-based mode can only be applied globally and not. 4. NGFW policy-based mode policies support only flow inspection 58 / 184 58. Which statements are true regarding firewall policy NAT using the outgoing interface IP address with fixed port disabled? (Choose two.) 1. Port address translation is not use 2. Connections are tracked using source port and source MAC address. 3. Source IP is translated to the outgoing interface IP. 4. This is known as many-to-one NAT. 59 / 184 59. Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question. Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same destination? 1. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes. 2. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate. 3. . FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table 4. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route 60 / 184 60. If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to? 1. A subordinate CA 2. A person 3. A root CA 4. A CRL 61 / 184 61. If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to? 1. A person 2. A root CA 3. A CRL 4. A subordinate CA 62 / 184 62. Which type of logs on FortiGate record information about traffic directly to and from the FortiGate management IP addresses? 1. System event logs 2. Forward traffic logs 3. Security logs 4. Local traffic logs 63 / 184 63. An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices. Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true? 1. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology. 2. A phase 2 configuration is not required. 3. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed 4. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list. 64 / 184 64. Examine this PAC file configuration Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.) 1. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy. 2. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy. 3. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate 4. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060. 65 / 184 65. An administrator is configuring an Ipsec between site A and siteB. The Remotes Gateway setting in both sites has been configured as Static IP Address. For site A, the local quick mode selector is 192.16.1.0/24 and the remote quick mode selector is 192.16.2.0/24. How must the administrator configure the local quick mode selector for site B? 1. 192.168.1.0/24 2. 192.168.0.0/8 3. 192.168.3.0/24 4. 192.168.2.0/24 66 / 184 66. Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose three.) 1. WinSecLog 2. FortiGate polling 3. NetAPI 4. WMI 5. Novell API 67 / 184 67. Refer to the exhibit. The global settings on a FortiGate device must be changed to align with company security policies. What does the Administrator account need to access the FortiGate global settings? A. Change password 1. Enable two-factor authentication 2. Change password 3. Enable restrict access to trusted hosts 4. Change Administrator profile 68 / 184 68. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains a network diagram, central SNAT policy, and IP pool configuration. The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24. A firewall policy is configured to allow to destinations from LAN (port3) to WAN (port1). Central NAT is enabled, so NAT settings from matching Central SNAT policies will be applied. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the traffic, if the user on Local-Client (10.0.1.10) pings the IP address of Remote-FortiGate (10.200.3.1)? 1. 10.200.1.99 2. 10.200.1.149 3. 10.200.1.49 4. 10.200.1.1 69 / 184 69. Refer to the exhibits. The SSL VPN connection fails when a user attempts to connect to it. What should the user do to successfully connect to SSL VPN? 1. Change the SSL VPN port on the client. 2. Change the Server IP address 3. Change the SSL VPN portal to the tunnel. 4. Change the idle-timeout 70 / 184 70. What files are sent to FortiSandbox for inspection in flow-based inspection mode? 1. All suspicious files that are above the defined oversize limit value in the protocol options. 2. All suspicious files that match patterns defined in the antivirus profile. 3. All suspicious files that are allowed to be submitted to FortiSandbox in the antivirus profile. 4. . All suspicious files that do not have their hash value in the FortiGuard antivirus signature database. 71 / 184 71. A network administrator wants to set up redundant IPsec VPN tunnels on FortiGate by using two IPsec VPN tunnels and static routes. * All traffic must be routed through the primary tunnel when both tunnels are up * The secondary tunnel must be used only if the primary tunnel goes down * In addition, FortiGate should be able to detect a dead tunnel to speed up tunnel failover Which two key configuration changes are needed on FortiGate to meet the design requirements? (Choose two,) 1. Enable Auto-negotiate and Autokey Keep Alive on the phase 2 configuration of both tunnels. 2. Enable Dead Peer Detection 3. Configure a high distance on the static route for the primary tunnel, and a lower distance on the static route for the secondary tunnel. 4. Configure a lower distance on the static route for the primary tunnel, and a higher distance on the static route for the secondary tunnel 72 / 184 72. Which engine handles application control traffic on the next-generation firewall? 1. Detection engine 2. Flow engine 3. Intrusion prevention system engine 4. Antivirus engine 73 / 184 73. A network administrator has enabled full SSL inspection and web filtering on FortiGate. When visiting any HTTPS websites, the browser reports certificate warning errors. When visiting HTTP websites, the browser does not report errors. What is the reason for the certificate warning errors? 1. The CA certificate set on the SSL/SSH inspection profile has not been imported into the browser. 2. The browser requires a software update. 3. FortiGate does not support full SSL inspection when web filtering is enabled. 4. There are network connectivity issues. 74 / 184 74. When browsing to an internal web server using a web-mode SSL VPN bookmark, which IP address is used as the source of the HTTP request? 1. remote user’s public IP address 2. The internal IP address of the FortiGate device 3. The public IP address of the FortiGate device. 4. The remote user’s virtual IP address. 75 / 184 75. Examine the IPS sensor and DoS policy configuration shown in the exhibit, then answer the question below. When detecting attacks, which anomaly, signature, or filter will FortiGate evaluate first? 1. ip_src_session 2. SMTP.Login.Brute.Force 3. Location: server Protocol: SMTP 4. IMAP.Login.brute.Force 76 / 184 76. Examine the routing database shown in the exhibit, and then answer the following question: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.) 1. The port3 default route has the lowest metric. 2. There will be eight routes active in the routing table. 3. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table. 4. The port3 default route has the highest distance. 77 / 184 77. On a FortiGate with a hard disk, how can you upload logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager? (Choose two.) 1. on-demand 2. hourly 3. store-and-upload 4. real time 78 / 184 78. Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question. Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same destination? 1. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate. 2. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route 3. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes. 4. FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table 79 / 184 79. Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.) 1. Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers. 2. Include the group of guest users in a policy. 3. . Extend timeout timers. 4. Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required ports. 80 / 184 80. In consolidated firewall policies, IPv4 and IPv6 policies are combined in a single consolidated policy. Instead of separate policies. Which three statements are true about consolidated IPv4 and IPv6 policy configuration? (Choose three.) 1. The policy table in the GUI can be filtered to display policies with IPv4, IPv6 or IPv4 and IPv6 sources and destinations. 2. The IP version of the sources and destinations in a policy must match. 3. The IP version of the sources and destinations in a firewall policy must be different. 4. The policy table in the GUI will be consolidated to display policies with IPv4 and IPv6 sources and destinations. 5. The Incoming Interface. Outgoing Interface. Schedule, and Service fields can be shared with both IPv4 and IPv6. 81 / 184 81. Examine this output from a debug flow: Why did the FortiGate drop the packet? 1. The next-hop IP address is unreachable. 2. . It failed the RPF check. 3. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY. 4. It matched the default implicit firewall policy. 82 / 184 82. Which Security rating scorecard helps identify configuration weakness and best practice violations in your network? 1. Automated Response 2. Optimization 3. Fabric Coverage 4. Security Posture 83 / 184 83. Which of the following statements about NTLM authentication are correct? (Choose two.) 1. It is useful when users log in to DCs that are not monitored by a collector agent. 2. Multi-domain environments require DC agents on every domain controller. 3. NTLM-enabled web browsers are required. 4. . It takes over as the primary authentication method when configured alongside FSSO. 84 / 184 84. Which two statements ate true about the Security Fabric rating? (Choose two.) 1. It provides executive summaries of the four largest areas of security focus. 2. Many of the security issues can be fixed immediately by click ng Apply where available 3. The Security Fabric rating must be run on the root FortiGate device in the Security Fabric 4. The Security Fabric rating is a free service that comes bundled with alt FortiGate devices. 85 / 184 85. An administrator wants to configure timeouts for users Regardless of the user's behavior, the timer should start and expire after the configured value. Which timeout option should be configured on FortiGate? 1. Hard-timeout 2. New-session 3. Soft-timeout 4. Auth-on-demand 5. Idle timeout 86 / 184 86. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the administrator profile settings, what permissions must the administrator set to run the diagnose firewall auth list CLI command on FortiGate? 1. Read/Write permission for Log & Report 2. Read/Write permission for Firewall 3. CLI diagnostics commands permission 4. Custom permission for Network 87 / 184 87. Which security feature does FortiGate provide to protect servers located in the internal networks from attacks such as SQL injections? 1. Antivirus 2. Web application firewall 3. Denial of Service 4. Application control 88 / 184 88. Refer to the exhibit, which contains a session diagnostic output. Which statement is true about the session diagnostic output? 1. The session is in TCP ESTABLISHED state 2. The session is a UDP unidirectional state. 3. The session is a bidirectional TCP connection 4. The session is a bidirectional UDP connection 89 / 184 89. Which two statements are true about collector agent standard access mode? (Choose two.) 1. Standard mode security profiles apply to organizational units (OU). 2. Standard mode uses Windows convention-NetBios: Domain\Username 3. Standard access mode supports nested groups. 4. Standard mode security profiles apply to user groups. 90 / 184 90. A network administrator is configuring a new IPsec VPN tunnel on FortiGate. The remote peer IP address is dynamic, in addition, the remote peer does not support a dynamic DNS update service. What type of remote gateway should tie administrator configure on FortiGate for the new IPsec VPN tunnel to work? 1. Dynamic DNS 2. Static IP Address 3. Dialup User 4. Pre-shared Key 91 / 184 91. The HTTP inspection process in web filtering follows a specific order when multiple features are enabled in the web filter profile. What order must FortiGate use when the web filter profile has features enabled, such as safe search? 1. FortiGuard category filter and rating filter 2. Static domain filter, SSL inspection filter, and external connectors filters 3. Static URL filter, FortiGuard category filter, and advanced filters 4. DNS-based web filter and proxy-based web filter 92 / 184 92. What criteria does FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose two.) 1. Services defined in the firewall policy. 2. . Lowest to highest policy ID number. 3. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy. 4. Incoming and outgoing interfaces. 93 / 184 93. An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address. What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.) 1. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair. 2. The operation mode is transparent. 3. Captive portal is enabled in the interface. 4. The interface is a member of a zone. 5. The interface has been configured for one-arm sniffer. 94 / 184 94. Examine this FortiGate configuration Based on the diagnostic outputs above, how is the FortiGate handling the traffic for new sessions that require inspection? 1. It is allowed and inspected as long as the inspection is flow based 2. It is dropped 3. It is allowed, but with no inspection 4. It is allowed and inspected, as long as the only inspection required is antivirus 95 / 184 95. Which statement is true regarding the policy ID number of a firewall policy? 1. Required to modify a firewall policy using the CLI. 2. Defines the order in which rules are processed. 3. Changes when firewall policies are reordered. 4. Represents the number of objects used in the firewall policy. 96 / 184 96. A network administrator has enabled SSL certificate inspection and antivirus on FortiGate detects the virus and blocks the file. When downloading the same file that's be downloaded. What is the reason for the felled virus detection by FortiGate? 1. SSL/SSH inspection profile is incorrect 2. Antivirus definitions are not up to date 3. Antivirus profile configuration is incorrect 4. Application control as not enabled 97 / 184 97. During the digital verification process, comparing the original and fresh hash results satisfies which security requirement? 1. Data integrity. 2. Authentication. 3. Non-repudiation. 4. Signature verification. 98 / 184 98. Why must you use aggressive mode when a local FortiGate IPSec gateway hosts multiple dialup tunnels? 1. . In aggressive mode, the remote peers are able to provide their peer IDs in the first message. 2. Main mode does not support XAuth for user authentication. 3. FortiClient only supports aggressive mode. 4. FortiGate is able to handle NATed connections only in aggressive mode. 99 / 184 99. Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate FSSO agentless polling mode? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGate uses the SMB protocol to read the event viewer logs from the DCs. 2. FortiGate queries AD by using the LDAP to retrieve user group information 3. FortiGate uses the AD server as the collector agent. 4. FortiGate points the collector agent to use a remote LDAP server. 100 / 184 100. Refer to the FortiGuard connection debug output. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGate is using default FortiGuard communication setting 2. One server was contacted to retrieve the contract information 3. There is at least one server that lost packets consecutively. 4. A local FortiManager is one of the servers FortiGate communicates with. 101 / 184 101. Which of the following SD-WAN load –balancing method use interface weight value to distribute traffic? (Choose two.) 1. Source IP 2. Session 3. Volume 4. Spillover 102 / 184 102. If the Services field is configured in a Virtual IP (VIP), which statement is true when central NAT is used? 1. The Services field prevents SNAT and DNAT from being combined in the same policy. 2. The Services field prevents multiple sources of traffic from using multiple services to connect to a single computer. 3. The Services field is used when you need to bundle several VIPs into VIP groups. 4. The Services field removes the requirement to create multiple VIPs for different services. 103 / 184 103. Which three authentication timeout types are availability for selection on FortiGate? (Choose three.) 1. new-session 2. hard-timeout 3. soft-timeout 4. Idle-timeout 5. auth-on-demand 104 / 184 104. What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy, in NGFW policy-based mode? 1. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only. 2. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only. 3. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only 4. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only. 105 / 184 105. An administrator Is configuring an IPsec VPN between site A and site B. The Remote Gateway setting in both sites has been configured as Static IP Address. For site A. the local quick mode selector is 192.160.1.0/24 and the remote quick mode selector is 192.168.2.0/24. Which subnet must the administrator configure for the local quick mode selector for site B? 1. 92.168.1.0/24 2. 192.168.3.0/24 3. 192.168.0.0/24 4. 192.168.2.0/24 106 / 184 106. NGFW mode allows policy-based configuration for most inspection rules. Which security profile’s configuration does not change when you enable policy-based inspection? 1. Web proxy 2. Antivirus 3. Web filtering 4. Application control 107 / 184 107. Examine this output from a debug flow: Why did the FortiGate drop the packet? 1. It matched the default implicit firewall policy. 2. It failed the RPF check 3. The next-hop IP address is unreachable. 4. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY. 108 / 184 108. Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit A shows system performance output. Exhibit B shows a FortiGate configured with the default configuration of high memory usage thresholds. Based on the system performance output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) 1. Administrators can access FortiGate only through the console port. 2. Administrators cannot change the configuration 3. FortiGate has entered conserve mode. 4. FortiGate will start sending all files to FortiSandbox for inspection. 109 / 184 109. Which statement about the policy ID number of a firewall policy is true? 1. It represents the number of objects used in the firewall policy. 2. It defines the order in which rules are processed. 3. It changes when firewall policies are reordered. 4. It is required to modify a firewall policy using the CLI. 110 / 184 110. Which two policies must be configured to allow traffic on a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW) FortiGate? (Choose two.) 1. SSL inspection and authentication policy 2. Policy rule 3. Security policy 4. Firewall policy 111 / 184 111. Refer to the exhibit Examine the intrusion prevention system (IPS) diagnostic command. Which statement is correct If option 5 was used with the IPS diagnostic command and the outcome was a decrease in the CPU usage? 1. The IPS engine was unable to prevent an intrusion attack. 2. The IPS engine was inspecting high volume of traffic. 3. The IPS engine will continue to run in a normal state. 4. The IPS engine was blocking all traffic. 112 / 184 112. View the exhibit: Which the FortiGate handle web proxy traffic rue? (Choose two.) 1. Broadcast traffic received in port1-VLAN10 will not be forwarded to port2-VLAN10. 2. port1-VLAN10 and port2-VLAN10 can be assigned to different VDOM 3. port-VLAN1 is the native VLAN for the port1 physical interface. 4. Traffic between port1-VLAN1 and port2-VLAN1 is allowed by default. 113 / 184 113. Why does FortiGate Keep TCP sessions in the session table for several seconds, even after both sides (client and server) have terminated the session? 1. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets 2. To remove the NAT operation 3. To generate logs 4. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets 114 / 184 114. Which two types of traffic are managed only by the management VDOM? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGuard web filter queries 2. Traffic shaping 3. PKI 4. DNS 115 / 184 115. An administrator needs to strengthen the security for SSL VPN access. Which of the following statements are best practices to do so? (Choose three.) 1. Configure host restrictions by IP or MAC address. 2. Configure a client integrity check (host-check). 3. . Configure SSL offloading to a content processor (FortiASIC). 4. Configure two-factor authentication using security certificates. 5. Configure split tunneling for content inspection. 116 / 184 116. An administrator has configured two-factor authentication to strengthen SSL VPN access. Which additional best practice can an administrator implement? 1. Configure host check. 2. Configure split tunneling in tunnel mode 3. Configure different SSL VPN realms. 4. Configure Source IP Pools. 117 / 184 117. Refer to the exhibit. Which contains a network diagram and routing table output. The Student is unable to access Webserver. What is the cause of the problem and what is the solution for the problem? 1. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 10.0.4.0/24 through wan1. 2. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 203.0.114.24/32 through port3. 3. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 10.0.4.0/24 through wan1 4. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 203.0.114.24/32 through port3. 118 / 184 118. How can you block or allow to Twitter using a firewall policy? 1. Configure the Service field as Internet Service objects for Twitter. 2. Configure the Source field as Internet Service objects for Twitter. 3. Configure the Destination field as Internet Service objects for Twitter. 4. . Configure the Action field as Learn and select Twitter. 119 / 184 119. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a CLI output of firewall policies, proxy policies, and proxy addresses. How does FortiGate process the traffic sent to http://www.fortinet.com? Select an answer1. Traffic will be redirected to the transparent proxy and it will be allowed by proxy policy ID 3.2. Traffic will be redirected to the transparent proxy and it will be denied by the proxy implicit deny policy.3. Traffic will not be redirected to the transparent proxy and it will be allowed by firewall policy ID 1.4. Traffic will be redirected to the transparent proxy and It will be allowed by proxy policy ID 1. 120 / 184 120. What devices form the core of the security fabric? 1. One FortiGate device and one FortiAnalyzer device 2. One FortiGate device and one FortiManager device 3. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiManager device 4. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiAnalyzer device 121 / 184 121. Which two settings can be separately configured per VDOM on a FortiGate device? (Choose two.) 1. System time 2. FortiGuaid update servers 3. NGFW mode 4. Operating mode 122 / 184 122. 141.Which three criteria can a FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose three.) 1. Lowest to highest policy ID number. 2. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy. 3. Services defined in the firewall policy. 4. Destination defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy. 5. Source defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy. 123 / 184 123. Which two protocols are used to enable administrator access of a FortiGate device? (Choose two.) 1. FTM 2. HTTPS 3. FortiTelemetry 4. SSH 124 / 184 124. If Internet Service is already selected as Source in a firewall policy, which other configuration objects can be added to the Source filed of a firewall policy? 1. Once Internet Service is selected, no other object can be added 2. IP address 3. User or User Group 4. FQDN address 125 / 184 125. Which of the following statements is true regarding SSL VPN settings for an SSL VPN portal? 1. By default, FortiGate uses WINS servers to resolve names. 2. By default, the admin GUI and SSL VPN portal use the same HTTPS port. 3. By default, the SSL VPN portal requires the installation of a client’s certificate. 4. By default, split tunneling is enabled. 126 / 184 126. Which two statements are true when FortiGate is in transparent mode? (Choose two.) 1. Static routes are required to allow traffic to the next hop. 2. The existing network IP schema must be changed when installing a transparent mode. 3. FortiGate forwards frames without changing the MAC address 4. By default, all interfaces are part of the same broadcast domain. 127 / 184 127. View the exhibit. Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.) 1. This setup requires at least two firewall policies with the action set to IPsec. 2. Dead peer detection must be disabled to support this type of IPsec setup. 3. The TunnelB route is the primary route for reaching the remote site. The TunnelA route is used only if the TunnelB VPN is down. 4. This is a redundant IPsec setup. 128 / 184 128. Which downstream FortiGate VOOM is used to join the Security Fabric ? 1. Customer VOOM 2. Root VDOOM 3. Global VDOM 4. FG-traffic VDOM 129 / 184 129. An organization’s employee needs to connect to the office through a high-latency internet connection. Which SSL VPN setting should the administrator adjust to prevent the SSL VPN negotiation failure? 1. Change the idle-timeout. 2. Change the session-ttl. 3. Change the udp idle timer. 4. Change the login timeout 130 / 184 130. Examine the network diagram shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question: Which one of the following routes is the best candidate route for FGT1 to route traffic from the Workstation to the Web server? 1. 0.0.0.0/0 [20/0] via 10.4.200.2, port2 2. 172.16.32.0/24 is directly connected, port1 3. 10.4.200.0/30 is directly connected, port2 4. 172.16.0.0/16 [50/0] via 10.4.200.2, port2 [5/0] 131 / 184 131. Which statement correctly describes NetAPI polling mode for the FSSO collector agent? 1. The collector agent must search security event logs. 2. The collector agent uses a Windows API to query DCs for user logins. 3. The NetSessionEnum function is user] to track user logouts 4. NetAPI polling can increase bandwidth usage in large networks. 132 / 184 132. Which three CLI commands can you use to troubleshoot Layer 3 issues if the issue is in neither the physical layer nor the link layer? (Choose three.) 1. execute ping 2. get system arp 3. execute traceroute 4. diagnose sys top 5. diagnose sniffer packet any 133 / 184 133. Refer to the exhibit, which contains a static route configuration An administrator created a static route for Amazon Web Services. What CLI command must the administrator use to view the route? 1. get router info routing-table all 2. diagnose firewall proute list 3. get internet service route list 4. get router info routing-table datab 134 / 184 134. Which of the following features is supported by web filter in flow-based inspection mode with NGFW mode set to profile-based? 1. Search engines 2. Static URL 3. Rating option 4. FortiGuard Quotas 135 / 184 135. Which scanning technique on FortiGate can be enabled only on the CLI? 1. Antivirus scan 2. Ransomware scan 3. Trojan scan 4. Heuristics scan 136 / 184 136. FortiGate is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW) and is applying web filtering and application control directly on the security policy. Which two other security profiles can you apply to the security policy? (Choose two.) 1. Antivirus scanning 2. DNS filter 3. File filter 4. Intrusion prevention 137 / 184 137. An administrator has configured the following settings: What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.) 1. A session for denied traffic is created. 2. Denied users are blocked for 30 minutes 3. Device detection on all interfaces is enforced for 30 minutes 4. The number of logs generated by denied traffic is reduced. 138 / 184 138. Which two protocol options are available on the CLI but not on the GUI when configuring an SD-WAN Performance SLA? (Choose two.) 1. DNS 2. ping 3. TWAMP 4. udp-echo 139 / 184 139. Which CLI command allows administrators to troubleshoot Layer 2 issues, such as an IP address conflict? 1. get system performance status 2. diagnose sys top 3. get system status 4. get system arp 140 / 184 140. How do you format the FortiGate flash disk? 1. Load the hardware test (HQIP) image 2. Execute the CLI command execute formatlogdisk 3. Load a debug FortiOS image 4. Select the format boot device option from the BIOS menu. 141 / 184 141. Consider the topology: Application on a Windows machine <--{SSL VPN} -->FGT--> Telnet to Linux server. An administrator is investigating a problem where an application establishes a Telnet session to a Linux server over the SSL VPN through FortiGate and the idle session times out after about 90 minutes. The administrator would like to increase or disable this timeout. The administrator has already verified that the issue is not caused by the application or Linux server. This issue does not happen when the application establishes a Telnet connection to the Linux server directly on the LAN. What two changes can the administrator make to resolve the issue without affecting services running through FortiGate? (Choose two.) 1. Create a new firewall policy and place it above the existing SSLVPN policy for the SSL VPN traffic, and set the new TELNET service object in the policy 2. Set the session TTL on the SSLVPN policy to maximum, so the idle session timeout will not happen after 90 minutes. 3. Set the maximum session TTL value for the TELNET service object 4. Create a new service object for TELNET and set the maximum session TTL. 142 / 184 142. Refer to the exhibit A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 fails to come up. The administrator has also re-entered the pre-shared key on both FortiGate devices to make sure they match. Based on the phase 1 configuration and the diagram shown in the exhibit, which two configuration changes will bring phase 1 up? (Choose two.) 1. On HQ-FortiGate, set IKE mode to Main (ID protection). 2. On both FortiGate devices, set Dead Peer Detection to On Demand. 3. On HQ-FortiGate, disable Diffie-Helman group 2. 4. On Remote-FortiGate, set port2 as Interface. 143 / 184 143. Which two statements are true about the RPF check? (Choose two.) 1. The RPF check is run on the first reply packet of any new session 2. The RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session. 3. The RPF check is run on the first sent packet of any new session 4. RPF is a mechanism that protects FortiGuard and your network from IP spoofing attacks 144 / 184 144. Which of the following services can be inspected by the DLP profile? (Choose three.) 1. CIFS 2. HTTP-POST 3. NFS 4. IMAP 5. FTP 145 / 184 145. Which statement about DLP on FortiGate is true? 1. It can be applied to a firewall policy in a flow-based VDOM 2. It can archive files and messages. 3. Traffic shaping can be applied to DLP sensors. 4. Files can be sent to FortiSandbox for detecting DLP threats. 146 / 184 146. Which three statements about security associations (SA) in IPsec are correct? (Choose three.) 1. A phase 1 SA is bidirectional, while a phase 2 SA is directional. 2. Both the phase 1 SA and phase 2 SA are bidirectional. 3. Phase 2 SA expiration can be time-based, volume-based, or both. 4. Phase 2 SAs are used for encrypting and decrypting the data exchanged through the tunnel. 5. An SA never expires. 147 / 184 147. An administrator must disable RPF check to investigate an issue. Which method is best suited to disable RPF without affecting features like antivirus and intrusion prevention system? 1. Disable the RPF check at the FortiGate interface level for the source check. 2. Enable asymmetric routing, so the RPF check will be bypassed. 3. Disable the RPF check at the FortiGate interface level for the reply check. 4. Enable asymmetric routing at the interface level 148 / 184 148. Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration. The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24. The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is configured with a VIP as the destination address. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10/24? 1. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24 2. 10.200.1.10 3. 10.200.1.1 4. 0.0.1.254 149 / 184 149. Which two inspection modes can you use to configure a firewall policy on a profile-based next-generate? 1. Full Content lnspection 2. Flow-based inspection 3. Proxy-based inspection 4. Certificate Inspection 150 / 184 150. Which three pieces of information does FortiGate use to identify the hostname of the SSL server when SSL certificate inspection is enabled? (Choose three.) 1. The subject alternative name (SAN) field in the server certificate 2. The serial number in the server certificate 3. The server name indication (SNI) extension in the client hello message 4. The subject field in the server certificate 5. The host field in the HTTP header 151 / 184 151. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit displays the output of the CLI command: diagnose sys ha dump-by vcluster. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 1. FortiGate SN FGVM010000064692 has the higher HA priority. 2. FortiGate devices are not in sync because one device is down. 3. FortiGate SN FGVM010000065036 HA uptime has been reset. 4. FortiGate SN FGVM010000064692 is the primary because of higher HA uptime 152 / 184 152. Which statements about the firmware upgrade process on an active-active HA cluster are true? (Choose two.) 1. Only secondary FortiGate devices are rebooted. 2. Uninterruptable upgrade is enabled by default 3. The firmware image must be manually uploaded to each FortiGate. 4. load balancing is temporally disabled while upgrading the firmware. 153 / 184 153. Which two statements about IPsec authentication on FortiGate are correct? (Choose two.) 1. Enabling XAuth results in a faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged 2. A certificate is not required on the remote peer when you set the signature as the authentication method 3. For a stronger authentication, you can also enable extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password 4. FortiGate supports pre-shared key and signature as authentication methods. 154 / 184 154. Which configuration objects can be selected for the Source field of a firewall policy? (Choose two.) 1. IP Pool 2. Firewall service 3. FQDN address 4. User or user group 155 / 184 155. Refer to the exhibit. Which contains a Performance SLA configuration. An administrator has configured a performance SLA on FortiGate. Which failed to generate any traffic. Why is FortiGate not generating any traffic for the performance SLA? 1. The Ping protocol is not supported for the public servers that are configured. 2. Participants configured are not SD-WAN members. 3. There may not be a static route to route the performance SLA traffic. 4. You need to turn on the Enable probe packets switch. 156 / 184 156. An administrator wants to configure Dead Peer Detection (DPD) on IPSEC VPN for DPD probes only when no traffic is observed in the tunnel. Which DPO mode on FortiGate wtll meet the above requirement? 1. Enabled 2. Disabled 3. On Demand 4. On Idel 157 / 184 157. To complete the final step of a Security Fabric configuration, an administrator must authorize all the devices on which device? 1. Downstream FortiGate 2. FortiAnalyzer 3. Root FortiGate 4. FortiManager 158 / 184 158. By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering with FortiGuard servers. Which two CLI commands will cause FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate with FortiGuard servers for live web filtering? (Choose two.) 1. set webfilter-force-off disable 2. set fortiguard anycast disable 3. set webfilter-cache disable 4. set protocol udp 159 / 184 159. An administrator needs to configure VPN user access for multiple sites using the same soft FortiToken. Each site has a FortiGate VPN gateway. What must an administrator do to achieve this objective? 1. The administrator must use a FortiAuthenticator device. 2. The administrator must use the user self-registration server 3. The administrator can register the same FortiToken on more than one FortiGate. 4. The administrator can use a third-party radius OTP server. 160 / 184 160. Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.) 1. . It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes. 2. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes. 3. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2. 4. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are defined in advance. 161 / 184 161. Examine this FortiGate configuration: How does the FortiGate handle web proxy traffic coming from the IP address 10.2.1.200 that requires authorization? 1. It drops the traffic. 2. It authenticates the traffic using the authentication scheme SCHEME2. 3. It always authorizes the traffic without requiring authentication. 4. It authenticates the traffic using the authentication scheme SCHEME1 162 / 184 162. Which statement about the IP authentication header (AH) used by IPsec is true? 1. AH provides strong data integrity but weak encryption. 2. AH provides data integrity bur no encryption. 3. AH does not provide any data integrity or encryption 4. AH does not support perfect forward secrecy. 163 / 184 163. Which two VDOMs are the default VDOMs created when FortiGate is set up in split VDOM mode? (Choose two.) 1. FG-Mgmt 2. Root 3. FG-traffic 4. Mgmt 164 / 184 164. Which three statements about a flow-based antivirus profile are correct? (Choose three.) 1. FortiGate buffers the whole file but transmits to the client simultaneously. 2. Optimized performance compared to proxy-based inspection 3. IPS engine handles the process as a standalone. 4. If the virus is detected, the last packet is delivered to the client. 5. Flow-based inspection uses a hybrid of scanning modes available in proxy-based inspection. 165 / 184 165. An administrator does not want to report the logon events of service accounts to FortiGate. What setting on the collector agent is required to achieve this? 1. Add user accounts to the Ignore User List. 2. Add the support of NTLM authentication. 3. Add user accounts to Active Directory (AD). 4. Add user accounts to the FortiGate group fitter 166 / 184 166. Which two actions can you perform only from the root FortiGate in a Security Fabric? (Choose two.) 1. Log in to a downstream FortiSwitch device. 2. Shut down/reboot a downstream FortiGate device. 3. Disable FortiAnalyzer logging for a downstream FortiGate device 4. Ban or unban compromised hosts. 167 / 184 167. Which CLI command will display sessions both from client to the proxy and from the proxy to the servers? 1. diagnose wad session list | grep hook-pre&&hook-out 2. diagnose wad session list 3. diagnose wad session list | grep hook=pre&&hook=out 4. diagnose wad session list | grep "hook=pre"&"hook=out" 168 / 184 168. Refer to the exhibit The exhibit shows proxy policies and proxy addresses, the authentication rule and authentication scheme, users, and firewall address. An explicit web proxy is configured for subnet range 10.0.1.0/24 with three explicit web proxy policies. The authentication rule is configured to authenticate HTTP requests for subnet range 10.0.1.0/24 with a form-based authentication scheme for the FortiGate local user database. Users will be prompted for authentication. How will FortiGate process the traffic when the HTTP request comes from a machine with the source IP 10.0.1.10 to the destination http://www.fortinet.com? (Choose two.) 1. If a Google Chrome browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed 2. If a Mozilla Firefox browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed. 3. If a Microsoft Internet Explorer browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed. 4. If a Mozilla Firefox browser is used with User-A credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed. 169 / 184 169. View the exhibit. A user behind the FortiGate is trying to go to http://www.addictinggames.com (Addicting Games). Based on this configuration, which statement is true? 1. Addicting.Games can be allowed only if the Filter Overrides actions is set to Exempt 2. Addcting.Games is allowed based on the Categories configuration 3. Addicting.Games is blocked on the Filter Overrides configuration. 4. Addicting.Games is allowed based on the Application Overrides configuration 170 / 184 170. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains a network diagram, virtual IP, IP pool, and firewall policies configuration. The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10 .0.1.254. /24. The first firewall policy has NAT enabled using IP Pool. The second firewall policy is configured with a VIP as the destination address. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10? 1. 10.200.1.100 2. 10.200.3.1 3. 10.200.1.1 4. 10.200.1.10 171 / 184 171. In a high availability (HA) cluster operating in active-active mode, which of the following correctly describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a secondary FortiGate? 1. Client> primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> web server. 2. Clinet >secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server. 3. Client > secondary FortiGate> web server. 4. Client > primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server. 172 / 184 172. Refer to the exhibit The exhibit shower the IPS sensor configuration. If traffic matches this IPS sensor, which two actions is the sensor expected to take? (Choose two). 1. The sensor will block all attacks aimed at Windows server. 2. The sensor will gather a packet log for all matched traffic. 3. The sensor will reset all connections that match these signatures. 4. The sensor will allow attackers matching the NTP>Spoofed.KoD.DoS signature. 173 / 184 173. Which three security features require the intrusion prevention system (IPS) engine to function? (Choose three.) 1. Web application firewall 2. DNS filter 3. Antivirus in flow-based inspection 4. Application control 5. Web filter in flow-based inspection 174 / 184 174. Refer to the exhibit The exhibits show a network diagram and the explicit web proxy configuration. In the command diagnose sniffer packet, what filter can you use to capture the traffic between the client and the explicit web proxy? 1. ‘host 192.168.0.2 and port 8080’ 2. ‘host 192.168.0.1 and port 80’ 3. ‘host 10.0.0.50 and port 80’ 4. ‘host 10.0.0.50 and port 8080’ 175 / 184 175. When a firewall policy is created, which attribute is added to the policy to support recording logs to a FortiAnalyzer or a FortiManager and improves functionality when a FortiGate is integrated with these devices? 1. Policy ID 2. Sequence ID 3. Log ID 4. Universally Unique Identifier 176 / 184 176. Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.) 1. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes. 2. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are defined in advance. 3. It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes 4. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2. 177 / 184 177. How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user? 1. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials. 2. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials. 3. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the LDAP server. 4. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication. 178 / 184 178. Refer to the exhibit to view the firewall policy. Which statement is correct if well-known viruses are not being blocked? 1. The firewall policy must be configured in proxy-based inspection mode 2. Web filter should be enabled on the firewall policy to complement the antivirus profile. 3. The firewall policy does not apply deep content inspection. 4. The action on the firewall policy must be set to deny. 179 / 184 179. If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does FortiGate take? 1. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval. 2. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file. 3. It notifies the administrator by sending an email. 4. It archives the data for that IP address. 180 / 184 180. Refer to the exhibit to view the application control profile. Users who use Apple FaceTime video conferences are unable to set up meetings. In this scenario, which statement is true? 1. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom blocked filter. 2. The category of Apple FaceTime is being monitored. 3. The category of Apple FaceTime is being blocked 4. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom monitored filter 181 / 184 181. Refer to the exhibit. Which contains a session list output. Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which statement is true? 1. Overload NAT IP pool is used in the firewall policy 2. Destination NAT is disabled in the firewall policy. 3. Port block allocation IP pool is used in the firewall policy. 4. One-to-one NAT IP pool is used in the firewall policy 182 / 184 182. An administrator needs to increase network bandwidth and provide redundancy. What interface type must the administrator select to bind multiple FortiGate interfaces? 1. Aggregate interface 2. VLAN interface 3. Software Switch interface 4. Redundant interface 183 / 184 183. Which two statements are correct about SLA targets? (Choose two.) 1. SLA targets are required for SD-WAN rules with a Best Quality strategy. 2. SLA targets are optional. 3. You can configure only two SLA targets per one Performance SLA. 4. SLA targets are used only when referenced by an SD-WAN rule. 184 / 184 184. Refer to the exhibits. The exhibits show the SSL and authentication policy (Exhibit A) and the security policy (Exhibit B) tor Facebook. Users are given access to the Facebook web application. They can play video content hosted on Facebook but they are unable to leave reactions on videos or other types of posts. Which part of the policy configuration must you change to resolve the issue? 1. Add Facebook in the URL category in the security policy. 2. Force access to Facebook using the HTTP service. 3. Additional application signatures are required to add to the security policy. 4. The SSL inspection needs to be a deep content inspection. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 2 Created by Rabiul Islam CCNA Question Part-1 1 / 100 1. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? 1. CDP 2. SMTP 3. SNMP 4. ARP SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network. The SNMP framework has three parts: + An SNMP manager + An SNMP agent + A Management Information Base (MIB) The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network management information, which consists of collections of managed objects. With SNMP, the network administrator can send commands to multiple routers to do the backup. 2 / 100 2. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? 1. ip address dhcp 2. ip dhcp pool 3. ip helper-address 4. ip dhcp client 3 / 100 3. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) 1. when Carner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used 2. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again 3. when the cable length limits are exceeded 4. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted 5. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full-duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, noncompliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC. Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network. Reference: Click here 4 / 100 4. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? 1. RC4 2. AES-128 3. AES-256 4. TKIP with RC4 5 / 100 5. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration farted to work as intended. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration started to work as intended.Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two) 1. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101. 2. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. 3. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. 4. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1. 5. The ACL must be moved to the Gio/1 interface outbound on R2. 6 / 100 6. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? 1. flexconnect 2. local 3. mesh 4. sniffer Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html 7 / 100 7. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? 1. Option B 2. Option A 3. Option D 4. Option C 8 / 100 8. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) 1. It moves the control plane to a central point. 2. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions 3. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. 4. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. 5. It uses Telnet to report system issues. 9 / 100 9. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.) 1. one-to-many communication model 2. any-to-many communication model 3. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group 4. one-to-nearest communication model 5. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device 6. the same address for multiple devices in the group 10 / 100 10. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? 1. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. 2. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. 3. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. 4. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. 11 / 100 11. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output? 1. show ip interface 2. show cdp neighbor 3. show ip route 4. show interface 12 / 100 12. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected? 1. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk. 2. There is a native VLAN mismatch. 3. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. 4. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN. From the output we see the native VLAN of Switch1 on Gi0/1 interface is VLAN 1 while that of Switch2 is VLAN 99 so there would be a native VLAN mismatch 13 / 100 13. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? 1. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits. 2. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol. 3. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. 4. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. 14 / 100 14. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? 1. A network device has restarted. 2. A debug operation is running. 3. An ARP inspection has failed. 4. A routing instance has flapped. Usually no action is required when a route flaps so it generates the notification syslog level message (level 5). 15 / 100 15. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? 1. overlay 2. northbound 3. underlay 4. southbound 16 / 100 16. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? 1. enable secret 2. username Cisco password encrypt 3. service password-encryption 4. enable password 17 / 100 17. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address? 1. 0000.5E00.010a 2. 0007.C070/AB01 3. 0000.0C07.AC99 4. 0005.3711.0975 With VRRP, the virtual router's MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group. 18 / 100 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A? 1. 10.10.13.0/25 2. 10.10.10.0/28 3. 10.10.13.208/29 4. 10.10.13.144/28 Host A address fall within the address range. However, if more than one route to the same subnet exist (router will use the longest stick match, which match more specific route to the subnet). If there are route 10.10.13.192/26 and 10.10.13.208/29, the router will forward the packet to /29 rather than /28. 19 / 100 19. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? 1. Init 2. Full 3. 2-way 4. Exchange 20 / 100 20. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) 1. increased network security 2. fewer network failures 3. reduced operational costs 4. reduced hardware footprint 5. faster changes with more reliable results 21 / 100 21. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? 1. active 2. auto 3. desirable 4. on The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received. 22 / 100 22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration? 1. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. 2. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings 3. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch. 4. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted. Dynamic ARP inspection is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking 23 / 100 23. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication? 1. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device 2. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen. 3. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. 4. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. This is an example of how two-factor authentication (2FA) works: 1. The user logs in to the website or service with their username and password. 2. The password is validated by an authentication server and, if correct, the user becomes eligible for the second factor. 3. The authentication server sends a unique code to the user's second-factor method (such as a smartphone app). 4. The user confirms their identity by providing the additional authentication for their second-factor method. 24 / 100 24. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? 1. CPU ACL 2. Flex ACL 3. TACACS 4. RADIUS Whenever you want to control which devices can talk to the main CPU, a CPU ACL is used. Note: CPU ACLs only filter traffic towards the CPU, and not any traffic exiting or generated by the CPU. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/71978-acl-wlc.html 25 / 100 25. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? 1. 172.28.0.0/16 2. 172.9.0.0/16 3. 192.0.0.0/8 4. 209.165.201.0/24 This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below: Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B). 26 / 100 26. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? 1. 172.16.15.10 2. 10.10.10.20 3. 10.10.1.10 4. 192.168.0.1 OSPF uses the following criteria to select the router ID: 1. Manual configuration of the router ID (via the "router-id x.x.x.x" command under OSPF router configuration mode). 2. Highest IP address on a loopback interface. 3. Highest IP address on a non-loopback and active (no shutdown) interface 27 / 100 27. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place? 1. brute force attack 2. Physical access control 3. Social engineering attack 4. user awareness 28 / 100 28. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? 1. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. 2. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. 3. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration 4. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode. 29 / 100 29. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lot interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two) 1. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5 2. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 3. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2 4. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5 5. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5 Floating static routes are static routes that have an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance (AD) of another static route or dynamic routes. By default a static route has an AD of 1 then floating static route must have the AD greater than 1. Floating static route has a manually configured administrative distance greater than that of the primary route and therefore would not be in the routing table until the primary route fails. 30 / 100 30. Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN-2 1. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination 2. native VLAN mismatches 3. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet 4. trunk mode mismatches Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2. 31 / 100 31. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? 1. as-path 2. metric 3. cost 4. administrative distance
